SBI PO Prelims Previous Year Paper 2022 Mock 3
Directions (1-8): Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions.
Between 1900 and now, developed countries have benefitted from industrial development, which also led to greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions. Developing countries were relatively late in starting out on economic development. They may be contributing to emissions now, but that is a weak reason to ask them to stop economic development. A farmer in rural Africa can claim that his country has not added to emissions historically, but because of the U.S. or Russia's industrialisation, his agriculture yields are declining. Or an urban worker in South America has to work, without choice, in unforgiving heat wave conditions caused by the developed world's emissions of the past. Therefore, options like financing the developing or underdeveloped countries by the developed world have often been discussed.
A paper published by Springer Link earlier this year shows that emissions attributable to the U.S. over 1990-2014 caused losses that are concentrated around 1-2% of per capita GDP across nations in South America, Africa, and South and Southeast Asia, where temperature changes have likely impacted labour productivity and agricultural yields.
But emissions may have also helped a few countries, such as those in Northern Europe and Canada. Moody's Analytics estimates that by the middle of the century, Canada would see a rise in GDP of (about $\ 9\ billion a year) as warmer climates spur agriculture and labour productivity. The Canadian Climate Institute cautioned that such a claim was not wholly true and that other factors must be considered. For example, climate change-spurred floods could cost Canada $\ 17\ billion annually by 2050.
In this war of words, the only certainty is the fast-approaching calamity. The UN Environment Programme's annual emissions gap report for 2022 released late last month said the "international community is falling far short of the Paris goals, with no credible pathway to in place. Only an urgent system-wide transformation can avoid climate disaster.... The world must cut emissions by to avoid global catastrophe."
Q1. Why can developing countries specifically not be asked to stop industrialisation? (a) Developing countries do not produce emissions as much as developed countries. (b) Developing countries do not emit large amounts of greenhouse gases. (c) Developing countries cannot afford to stop their economic progress. (d) Emissions for developing countries are decreasing in amount every year. (e) None of these
Q2. How has industrialisation in developed countries affected the other countries of the world? (I) Stunted industrialisation due to economic advantage of developed countries. (II) There has been a decline in agriculture in many countries due to emissions. (III) Working conditions in these countries have worsened due to change in climate. (a) I and II (b) Only II (c) II and III (d) Only III (e) All of these
Q3. What conflict finds an explicit reference in the passage? (a) If climate change really poses a threat to all countries (b) If industrialisation really leads to climate change (c) If climate change is overall beneficial to some countries (d) If industrialisation can feasibly be stopped from harming the environment (e) If developed countries should curb emissions more
Q4. Why is there a need to take steps to cut back emissions by developed countries? (a) Countries all around the world suffer from the consequences of climate change regardless for who is to blame. (b) Economic development in many countries suffers due to climate change resulting from emissions. (c) Underdeveloped countries especially bear the consequences of climate change due to tropical climates. (d) Both a) and b) (e) All of these
Q5. Which of the following is true with respect to the passage? (a) The author suggests that developed countries should aid other countries in financing and healthcare. (b) Global emissions must be decreased to of the current amount to avoid a global disaster (c) The international community has failed to bring down the temperature 1.5 degrees Celsius by 2022. (d) Canada floods caused a damage worth 17 billion dollars by 2022 due to climate change. (e) All are false
Q6. Which of the following most appropriately fill the blank given in the passage? (a) dilemma (b) certainty (c) appeal (d) decision (e) prospect
Q7. Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word "spur" as is highlighted in the passage? (a) induce (b) protect (c) prevent (d) dispense (e) provide
Q8. Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word "relatively" as is highlighted in the passage? (a) merely (b) especially (c) repetitively (d) comparatively (e) disproportionately
Directions (9-14): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No error', the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
Q9. E-commerce companies made (A) /delivery their core competence (B) /by putting boots on the (C) /ground and even drones in the sky. (D) /No error(E) (a) A (b) B (c) D (d) C (e) No error
Q10. The ubiquitous growth of the internet and the rise of (A) /e-commerce have fuelled hyper lapse consumerism, which (B) / refers not only to the kinds of products been sold but (C) /also to the ease with which consumers order them. (D) / No error(E) (a) A (b) C (c) D (d) B (e) No error
Q11. A storehouse of nutrients, (A) / the drumstick is a (B) /common part of the (C) / daily diet in southern India (D)/ No error(E) (a) A (b) C (c) D (d) B (e) No error
Q12. For the classical period, there have (A) / been significant contributions from (B) / literary personalities belonging to (C) / Sri Lanka's Tamils to Tamil literature (D)/ No error(E) (a) B (a) A (c) D (d) C (e) No error
Q13. The sunlight from the old and (A) /arched window of the gallery was (B) /falling on the panels of painting (C) / making a shadow-like triangles (D)/ No error(E) (a) A (b) C (c) D (d) B (e) No error
Q14. Sitting in the sun, away from (A)/everyone who had done him (B)/ harm in the past, he quietly (C)/listen to those who roamed by (D)/ No error(E) (a)A (b)B (c)C (d)D (e)No Error
Directions (15-16): In each sentence, four words are highlighted, which may or may not be correctly placed. Choose the correct replacement within the highlighted words so that the sentence thus formed will be grammatically and logically correct.
Q15. The period (A) study showed a/an predominance (B) of the Omicron BA. 2 variant outcompeting (C) the BA. 1 over a/an current (D)in eastern Uttar Pradesh. (a)Only (A)-(B) (b)Only (A)-(C) and (B)-(D) (c)Only (C)-(D) (d)Only (A)-(D) (e)No replacement needed
Q16. The US is a particularly vociferous (A) opponent, and is sanctions (B) threatening (C)against European companies involved (D)in the project. (a)Only (C)-(B) (b)Only (A)-(C) and (B)-(D) (c)Only (C)-(D) (d)Only (A)-(D) (e)No replacement needed
Directions (17-22): Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) The Green Revolution of the 1960s brought about a marked improvement in the yield of agricultural crops such as rice and wheat (B) India saw a threefold increase in rice yield per hectare (C) It was based on the use of newly developed high-yielding crop varieties in conjunction with the intense use of irrigation, chemical fertilisers and pesticides (D) Now, 50 years later, some negative effects of this intense methodology are becoming apparent- nitrogen fertilisers pose environmental hazards, and agricultural soil is increasingly fatigued. (E) Subsequently, to obtain more food for the world's growing population, forests and grasslands would have to be converted to farms in order to produce food.
Q17. Which of the following should be the FIRST statement after rearrangement? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E
Q18. Which of the following should be the THIRD statement after rearrangement? (a) B (b) C (c) D (d) A (e) E
Q19. Which of the following should be the SECOND statement after rearrangement? (a) A (b) C (c)D (d)E (e)B
Q20. Which of the following should be the FIFTH statement after rearrangement? (a)B (b)C (c)D (d)A (e)E
Q21. Which of the following should be the FOURTH statement after rearrangement? (a)A (b)B (c) E (d) C (e) D
Q22. Which of the following should be the correct arrangement of the sentences? (a) ACBDE (b) BCADE (c) CDAEB (d) DABEC (e) None of the above
Directions (23-24): In each question a word is given and with respect to that three sentences are given using that word. Choose the sentence(s) that has/have the correct usage of the word.
Q23. Insensate (i) Due to an attack of an illness, his body has become permanently insensate. (ii) An insensate driver will drive recklessly and endangering both his life and the lives of others. (iii) When you viewed the handbag up close, you could tell it was an insensate knockoff. (a) All of these (b) Only (i) (c) Both (ii) & (iii) (d) Both (i) & (ii) (e) Only (iii)
Q24. Ingenious (i) Over the previous two days he had been feeling increasingly tired, ingenious, другиеic, and thirsty (ii) Although you are a fast runner, it is ingenious to think you can catch that car on foot. (iii) It's quite an ingenious method considering the time and the era that he was - he grew up in (a)All of these (b) Only (i) (c) Both (ii) (d) Both (i) & (ii) (e) Only (iii)
Directions (25-30): In each of the questions given below four words are given in bold. These words may or may not be in their correct position. Following each sentence four sequences are provided. Select the sequence of the words which will make the given sentence contextually meaningful. If the words are correct at their current positions, then choose option (E)
Q25. It is true that a large percentage of variant (A), both fully vaccinated and even boosted (B) and the unvaccinated were infected (C) with one or more of Omicron people (D) sub-lineages. (a) ABDC (b) ACBD (c) DBCA (d) DCAB (e) No interchange required
Q26. The Rajasthan government by organising the giving (A)Mahakumbh of rural sports in the state is not only(B) strengthening the infrastructure, but also first (C)birth to a new sports culture by promoting rural(D) sports. (a) CBAD (b) DBCA (c) ABDC (d) ACDB (e) No interchange required
Q27. People who spent mentally(A) than six hours working on a more (B) taxing assignment had higher brain (C) of glutamate, which can disrupt levels (D) functions. (a) DABC (b) ABDC (c) BADC (d) CADB (e) No interchange required
Q28. It may take a few more days for the during(A) people to return to their houses (B) and clean up their habitations (C) that were filled with mud deposited tribal (D) the floods. (a) DCBA (b) CDBA (c) ABDC (d) DABC (e) No interchange required
Q29. The programme aims at a promote (A) revival of millets in farms and plates to comprehensive(B) climate resilient farming and deficiency (C) to addressing micronutrient contribute(D). (a) ABDC (b) CADB (c) DCAB (d) BADC (e) No interchange required
Q30. There is a buzz (A) in India about the permanent (B) of the country becoming a prospects (C) member(D) of the United Nations Security Council. (a)ACBD (b)BDAC (c)CBDA (d)CBAD (e)No rearrangement required
Q31. A, B and C are partners in a business. Their investment are Rs. 5,000, Rs.7,000 & Rs.10,000 respectively. B get profit of total profit for managing the business. The remaining profit is divided among them in the ratio of their investment at the end of the year. If the profit of is Rs.2,500 less than the sum of the profit of A & C together, then what was the profit earned by A? (a) Rs. 3,500 (b) Rs. 3,250 (c) Rs. 3,000 (d) Rs. 2,700 (e) Rs. 2,500
Q32. Two trains running in opposite direction and cross a pole in 25 seconds and 32 seconds respectively. If they cross each other in 28 seconds, then find the ratio of their speed. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q33. Mukesh invests Rs.2Z in simple interest at the rate of p.a. for X years & receive simple interest as Rs. Z. If Sonu invest Rs. 3Z under simple interest at the rate of p.a. for years and receive simple interest Rs. 2Z, then find X is what of Y ? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q34. A vessel contains 250 liters of mixture of alcohol and water in the ratio of 7:3. 45 liters of mixture is added in container, which contain water and alcohol in the ratio of 5:4. Find the difference in the amount of water and alcohol in the final mixture. (a) 95 lit. (b) 55 lit. (c) 65 lit. (d) 85 lit. (e) 75 lit.
Q35. A shopkeeper marked an article above the cost price & sold it after two consecutive discount 20% and . Find the marked price, if the difference between selling price and cost price is Rs. 220. (a) Rs. 4,800 (b) Rs. 5,800 (c) Rs. 8,800 (d) Rs. 7,800 (e) Rs. 6,800
Directions (36-40): In each question two equations numbered (I) and (II) are given. You should solve both the equations and mark appropriate answer.
Q36. I. II. (a) If or no relation can be established (b) If (c) If (d) If (e) If
Q37. I. II. (a) If or no relation can be established (b) If (c) If (d) If (e) If
Q38. I. II. (a) If or no relation can be established (b) If (c) If (d) If (e) If
Q39. I. II. (a) If or no relation can be established (b) If (c) If (d) If (e) If
Q40. I. II. (a) If or no relation can be established (b) If (c) If (d) If (e) If
Directions (41-45): The following pie chart gives information about the distribution of no. of students in five government schools. Read the following pie chart carefully and answer the following questions given below.
Q41. If and of students in school and are girls respectively then find how many boys are present in the in the school A and D? (a) 4150 (b) 2250 (c) 3150 (d) 4950 (e) 4880
Q42. Find the average of students studying in school A, D and E? (a) 1050 (b) 2250 (c) 7890 (d) 3250 (e) 4525
Q43. If the fee of students studying in B, C and D is Rs 50, Rs 30 and Rs 40 respectively. Find the total fee collection in these schools. (a) 277500 (b) 378700 (c) 322322 (d) 250040 (e) 354700
Q44. Find the difference of students studying in and together and and together? (a) 1000 (b) 2500 (c) 1500 (d) 9000 (e) 3460
Q45. Find the difference of student studying in and the average number student studying in and together? (a) 550 (b) 400 (c) 2500 (d) 2250 (e) 1500
Q46. The breadth and length of a bigger rectangle are 93 cm and 152 cm respectively. If breadth of smaller rectangle is of the breadth of bigger rectangle and length of smaller rectangle is of the length of bigger rectangle, then find the area of smaller rectangle. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q47. Average age of a family of five persons, five years ago was 36 years. In between these five years the family adopted a child. Now at present the average age of the family is same as it was five years ago. Find the present age of the child. (a) 6 years (b) 9 years (c) 17 years (d) 11 years (e) 14 years
Q48. Tashu sold an article at a profit of to Mahi who further sold the same article to Jony at a loss of . If Jony sold the article to Khushi for Rs. 2691 at a profit of , then find the cost priced of the article for Tashu. (a) Rs. 2,600 (b) Rs. 2,000 (c) Rs. 2,500 (d) Rs. 1,800 (e) Rs. 2,250
Q49. Find the average of five consecutive natural numbers, if the largest number is more than the lowest number. (a) 10 (b) 19 (c) 17 (d) 15 (e) 12
Q50. A boat covers 22.4 km in downstream in 48 minutes and the speed of the stream is of the speed of the boat in still water. Find the ratio of time taken by boat to cover 54 km in upstream to the time taken by boat to cover 210 km in downstream respectively? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q51. An amount is divided among Deepak, Shivam and Prashant. Amount received by Deepak is Rs. 40 more than of total amount and amount received by Shivam is Rs. 5 more than of total amount, while amount received by Prashant is of total amount. Find the amount received by Shivam. (a) Rs. 480 (b) Rs. 640 (c) Rs. 540 (d) Rs. 450 (e) Rs. 380
Q52. 14 men working together can complete a piece of work in 18 days while 21 women working together can complete same work in 20 days. If a child is less efficient than a man, then find the time taken to complete the same work by 15 children working together. (a) 28 days (b) 21 days (c) 24 days (d) 20 days (e) 18 days
Q53. Average weight of 38 children in the class is 15 kg . If 4 children left the class whose average weight is 40 kg and 2 students joined the class whose average weight is 35 years, then find the average weight of all children in the class. (a) 55 kg (b) (c) 43 kg (d) (e) 34 kg
Q54. A person travelled 750 km by train, 440 km by bus and 210 km by car. It took 25 hours in all. If the ratio of speed of car to bus is and ratio of speed bus to train is , then find is the speed of bus? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q55. Time taken by pipes and together to fill a tank is 45 minutes and time taken by pipes and together to fill the same tank is 75 minutes. If pipe is more efficient than pipe , then find time taken by pipe and together to fill the same tank. (a) 56.25 minutes (b) 50.25 minutes (c) 46.25 minutes (d) 54.25 minutes (e) None of the above
Directions (56-60): The bar graph shows the total number of people (men and women) and the number of men visiting five different yoga centers (P, Q, R, S, and T) in a town. Read the following bar graph carefully and answer the questions given below.
Q56. The number of women visiting yoga Centre Q is what the number of men visiting yoga Centre T? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Q57. Find the ratio between total number of women visiting yoga Centre and together to total number of men visiting yoga Centre R and P together. (a) 8:7 (b) 2:3 (c) 5:7 (d) (e)
Q58. Find the difference between average number of men visiting yoga Centre T and Q together and average number of women visiting yoga Centre and together. (a) 100 (b) 75 (c) 50 (d) 25 (e) 125
Q59. Find the average of total number of women in visiting all yoga centers. (a) 210 (b) 180 (c) 255 (d) 168 (e) 322
Q60. If women visiting in yoga Centre T are unmarried and men visiting in that Centre are married, then find the total number of unmarried men and unmarried women who visit yoga Centre T together. (a) 130 (b) 150 (c) 170 (d) 110 (e) 90
Directions (61-65): What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions (You are not expected to calculate the exact value).
Q61. (a) 1255 (b) 1355 (c) 1455 (d) 1155 (e) 1055
Q62. of 650.232$)$ (a) 69 (b) 87 (c) 128 (d) 119 (e) 102
Q63. (680.25+914.95) \div 4.85=?+65.22 \%\ of 199.67 (a) 178 (b) 185 (c) 189 (d) 192 (e) 198
Q64. (a) 780 (b) 1320 (c) 1020 (d) 980 (e) 1150
Q65. of of ? (a) 989 (b) 1087 (c) 1054 (d) 972 (e) 957
Directions (66-70): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Ten persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, and J are sitting in a parallel row such that five persons sit in each row but not necessarily in the same order. Persons sit in row 1 face south direction and the persons sit in row 2 face north direction. Persons sit in row 1 face the persons sit in row 2 and vice versa. Consecutive named person according to alphabetical order neither sit adjacent nor opposite to each other.
J sits to the right of and either of them sit at the extreme end of the row. One person sits between and and none of them sit at any extreme end of the row. B sits to the right of who sits diagonally opposite to . faces the one who sits to the left of A who doesn't face south.
Q66. Who among the following sits second to the right of D? (a) G (b) B (c) A (d) I (e) None of these
Q67. Who sits second to the right of F? (a) G (b) B (c) C (d) E (e) None of these
Q68. Number of persons sit to the left of is same as the number of persons sit to the right of . (a) J, F (b) I, J (c) A, H (d) D, B (e) F, G
Q69. How many persons sit between D and E? (a) None (b) Two (c) Three (d) One (e) None of these
Q70. Who among the following sits to the right of I? (a) J (b) A (c) C (d) F (e) None of these
Directions (71-72): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. In a certain code language,
'calendar published university exam' is coded as 'zq ie mn as' 'important schedule published university' is coded as 'mn bn st ie' 'important time university exam' is coded as 'cd as mn bn' 'calendar exam student test' is coded as 'zq as zx yx'
Q71. Which of the following is the code for 'schedule'? (a) st (b) bn (c) ie (d) mn (e) None of these
Q72. Which of the following word is coded as 'bn'? (a) time (b) exam (c) schedule (d) Important (e) None of these
Directions (73-77): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
A certain number of persons are sitting in a row facing south direction. G sits to the right of W who sits to the left of . The number of persons sit between and is same as the number of persons sit to the right of G. E sits 3rd to the left of A. Six persons sits between E and F. Odd prime number of persons sit between G and H who doesn't sit to the right of A. Five persons sit between P and A. Four persons sit to the left of A.
Q73. Who sits to the right of A? (a) F (b) H (c) G (d) W (e) None of these
Q74. Who sits from the right end of the row? (a) E (b) W (c) H (d) P (e) Unknown person
Q75. How many persons sit between H and W? (a) Five (b) Six (c) Four (d) Three (e) None of these
Q76. What is the position of W with respect to E? (a) to the right (b) Immediate left (c) to the right (d) to the left (e) None of these
Q77. How many persons are sitting in the row? (a) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (d) 16 (e) None of these
**Q78. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from , and letters from left end of word "PRUDENTIAL", then which will be the 2nd letter of the meaningful word from left end (using each letter once)? If no such meaningful word be formed, then mark the answer as ' '. If more than one meaningful word can be formed then mark the answer as ' '. (a) Y (b) P (c) D (d) E (e) X
Directions (79-80): In these questions, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer:
Q79. Statements: Conclusion I: II: W>L (a) If only conclusion I true (b) If only conclusion II true (c) If either conclusion I or II true (d) If neither conclusion I nor II true (e) If both conclusions I and II true
Q80. Statements: Conclusion I: E M II: (a) If only conclusion I true (b) If only conclusion II true (c) If either conclusion I or II true (d) If neither conclusion I nor II true (e) If both conclusions I and II true
Directions (81-83): In each question below some statements are given followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Q81. Statements: Some Dog are Cat. No Horse is Dog. Only a few Cat is Rat.
Conclusions: I. All Rat is Dog is a possibility. II. Some Cat is not Horse (a) Only I follows (b) Both I and II follow (c) Only II follows (d) None follows (e) None of these
Q82. Statements: Only Purple is Yellow. All olive is purple. Only a few Green is Olive.
Conclusions: I. Some Olive is Yellow is a possibility II. Some Purple is Green is a possibility (a) Only I follows (b) Both I and II follow (c) Only II follows (d) Either I or II follows (e) None follows
Q83. Statements: All Book are Paper. No Paper is Test. All Book is Marks.
Conclusions: I. Some Marks is not Test II. All Test is Book. (a) Only II follows (b) Both I and II follow (c) Only I follows (d) Either I or II follows (e) None follows
Directions (84-86): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Point K is 6 m south of point T and 10 m west of point B . Point F is 5 m to the east of point C . Point S is 12 m to the north of point A and 9 m to the west of point T . Point F is 7 m to the south of point B .
Q84. What is the total distance from point to point ? (a) 22 m (b) 25 m (c) 31 m (d) 34 m (e) 28 m
Q85. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Find the one which doesn't belong to the group? (a) S-K (b) K-F (c) C-B (d) T-F (e) A-C
Q86. What is the shortest distance between point and point ? (a) 117 m (b) (c) 231 m (d) (e)
Directions (87-91): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight persons R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y are going to attend different events (but not necessarily in the same order) on two different dates i.e., 11 or 28 of four given months viz. September, October, November and December.
attends an event on odd date in the month which has even numbers of days. Two persons are attending an event between and . No one attend an event between and W.S and W does not attend event in same month. There are as many persons attend event before is same as attend after . attend event just after but not on odd date. does not attend an event after .
Q87. Who among the following attends the event on of November? (a) W (b) T (c) S (d) U (e) None of these
Q88. Who among the following attend event immediately before T? (a) W (b) X (c) S (d) U (e) None of these
Q89. How many persons attend an event between V and W? (a) One (b) Three (c) Four (d) Two (e) None of these
Q90. S goes in which of the following month? (a) November (b) September (c) December (d) October (e) Either October or December
Q91. Which of the following pair attend event in the same month? (a) and (b) and (c) and (d) T and Y (e) U and Y
Directions (92-96): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below
Eight persons are living on different floors of a nine-storey building. Ground floor is numbered as floor and just above the floor is numbered as floor and so on till the topmost floor is numbered as floor. There is one vacant floor.
More than three floors gap between and both of them live on even numbered floors. lives below and no one live between them. The number of persons live above is same as the number of persons live below . The number of persons live between and is half than the number of persons live below V . S lives three floors above W and lives on an even numbered floor. Odd numbered floors gap between P and V. R does not live on even numbered floor.
Q92. How many persons live between R and U? (a) 2 (b) More than 4 (c) 4 (d) 3 (e) None of these
Q93. Which of the following is true regarding to ? (a) V lives just below (b) lives on the floor (c) U lives below but not just below (d) More than four persons live above (e) None is true
Q94. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group? (a) P (b) R (c) W (d) V (e) Q
Q95. The number of floors gap between V and U is same as the number of persons live between and . (a) P, S (b) S, Q (c) U, R (d) (e)
Q96. Which of the following combination is correct? (a) floor- V (b) floor- T (c) floor- Q (d) floor- P (e) floor- W
Directions (97-99): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below
Six books B, C, D, F, N and V contain different number of pages are arranged in descending order from left end according to the number of pages.
Book N contains least pages of odd prime numbered pages but less than 7. Number of books between book N and book F is same as the number of books between book C and book F. Book B contains just least pages than book F which contains thrice number of pages than book N . The book which contains just more pages than book V contains the pages which is square of the sum of the number of pages of book N and book F. The book which contains 150 pages is not contains maximum number of pages.
Q97. What is the total number of pages of book V and F? (a) 65 pages (b) 52 pages (c) 55 pages (d) 165 pages (e) 155 pages
Q98. How many books contain a greater number of pages than book B? (a) Four (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) None of these
Q99. What is the sum of the number of pages of book C, V, F and N? (a) 570 pages (b) 470 pages (c) 350 pages (d) 430 pages (e) None of these
Q100. In a certain code "FRIDAY" is coded as "SGJEZB" and "LAPTOP" is coded as "BMQUQP", then what will be the code for the word "CIRCLE"? (a) JSDSMF (b) DJDSMF (c) JDSDFM (d) DJSMFS (e) None of these
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