Mock 3 (Answer with Explanation )SBI PO Prelims Previous Year Paper 2022

SBI PO Prelims Previous Year Paper 2022 Mock 3

Directions (1-8): Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions.

Between 1900 and now, developed countries have benefitted from industrial development, which also led to greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions. Developing countries were relatively late in starting out on economic development. They may be contributing to emissions now, but that is a weak reason to ask them to stop economic development. A farmer in rural Africa can claim that his country has not added to emissions historically, but because of the U.S. or Russia's industrialisation, his agriculture yields are declining. Or an urban worker in South America has to work, without choice, in unforgiving heat wave conditions caused by the developed world's emissions of the past. Therefore, options like financing the developing or underdeveloped countries by the developed world have often been discussed.

A paper published by Springer Link earlier this year shows that emissions attributable to the U.S. over 1990-2014 caused losses that are concentrated around 1-2% of per capita GDP across nations in South America, Africa, and South and Southeast Asia, where temperature changes have likely impacted labour productivity and agricultural yields.

But emissions may have also helped a few countries, such as those in Northern Europe and Canada. Moody's Analytics estimates that by the middle of the century, Canada would see a rise in GDP of 0.3% (about $9 billion a year) as warmer climates spur agriculture and labour productivity. The Canadian Climate Institute cautioned that such a claim was not wholly true and that other factors must be considered. For example, climate change-spurred floods could cost Canada $17 billion annually by 2050.

In this war of words, the only certainty is the fast-approaching calamity. The UN Environment Programme's annual emissions gap report for 2022 released late last month said the "international community is falling far short of the Paris goals, with no credible pathway to 1.5°C in place. Only an urgent system-wide transformation can avoid climate disaster.... The world must cut emissions by 45% to avoid global catastrophe."

Q1. Why can developing countries specifically not be asked to stop industrialisation? (a) Developing countries do not produce emissions as much as developed countries. (b) Developing countries do not emit large amounts of greenhouse gases. (c) Developing countries cannot afford to stop their economic progress. (d) Emissions for developing countries are decreasing in amount every year. (e) None of these

Explanation: The passage mentions that developing countries were relatively late in starting out on economic development and that asking them to stop industrialisation is a weak reason. It also highlights the impact of emissions from developed countries on developing countries. Therefore, the correct answer is (c) Developing countries cannot afford to stop their economic progress.

Q2. How has industrialisation in developed countries affected the other countries of the world? (I) Stunted industrialisation due to economic advantage of developed countries. (II) There has been a decline in agriculture in many countries due to emissions. (III) Working conditions in these countries have worsened due to change in climate. (a) I and II (b) Only II (c) II and III (d) Only III (e) All of these

Explanation: The passage mentions that a farmer in rural Africa can claim that his country has not added to emissions historically, but because of the U.S. or Russia's industrialisation, his agriculture yields are declining. It also mentions an urban worker in South America who has to work in unforgiving heat wave conditions caused by the developed world's emissions of the past. Therefore, the correct answer is (c) II and III.

Q3. What conflict finds an explicit reference in the passage? (a) If climate change really poses a threat to all countries (b) If industrialisation really leads to climate change (c) If climate change is overall beneficial to some countries (d) If industrialisation can feasibly be stopped from harming the environment (e) If developed countries should curb emissions more

Explanation: The passage discusses the impact of emissions from developed countries on developing countries and the need for the developed world to finance the developing or underdeveloped countries. It also mentions the potential benefits of emissions for some countries like those in Northern Europe and Canada. Therefore, the correct answer is (c) If climate change is overall beneficial to some countries.

Q4. Why is there a need to take steps to cut back emissions by developed countries? (a) Countries all around the world suffer from the consequences of climate change regardless of who is to blame. (b) Economic development in many countries suffers due to climate change resulting from emissions. (c) Underdeveloped countries especially bear the consequences of climate change due to tropical climates. (d) Both a) and b) (e) All of these

Q5. Which of the following is true with respect to the passage? (a) The author suggests that developed countries should aid other countries in financing and healthcare. (b) Global emissions must be decreased to 45% of the current amount to avoid a global disaster (c) The international community has failed to bring down the temperature 1.5 degrees Celsius by 2022. (d) Canada floods caused a damage worth 17 billion dollars by 2022 due to climate change. (e) All are false

Explanation: The passage mentions that the UN Environment Programme's annual emissions gap report for 2022 stated that the "international community is falling far short of the Paris goals, with no credible pathway to 1.5°C in place. Only an urgent system-wide transformation can avoid climate disaster.... The world must cut emissions by 45% to avoid global catastrophe." Therefore, the correct answer is (b) Global emissions must be decreased to 45% of the current amount to avoid a global disaster.

Q6. Which of the following most appropriately fills the blank given in the passage? (a) dilemma (b) certainty (c) appeal (d) decision (e) prospect

Explanation: The passage discusses the urgent need to take steps to cut back emissions by developed countries to avoid a global catastrophe. The word "certainty" fits best in the context as it refers to something that is definitely going to happen. Therefore, the correct answer is (b) certainty.

Q7. Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word "spur" as it is highlighted in the passage? (a) induce (b) protect (c) prevent (d) dispense (e) provide

Explanation: The word "spur" means to encourage or stimulate. The most similar word in meaning is "induce," which means to persuade or bring about. Therefore, the correct answer is (a) induce.

Q8. Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word "relatively" as it is highlighted in the passage? (a) merely (b) especially (c) repetitively (d) comparatively (e) disproportionately

Explanation: The word "relatively" means in comparison to something else. The most similar word in meaning is "comparatively," which means in a way that compares or relates to something else. Therefore, the correct answer is (d) comparatively.

Directions (9-14): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No error', the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

Q9. E-commerce companies made (A) /delivery their core competence (B) /by putting boots on the (C) /ground and even drones in the sky. (D) /No error(E) (a) A (b) B (c) D (d) C (e) No error

Explanation: The error is in part (B). It should be "delivery as their core competence" instead of "delivery their core competence." Therefore, the correct answer is (b) B.

Q10. The ubiquitous growth of the internet and the rise of (A) /e-commerce have fuelled hyper lapse consumerism, which (B) / refers not only to the kinds of products been sold but (C) /also to the ease with which consumers order them. (D) / No error(E) (a) A (b) C (c) D (d) B (e) No error

Explanation: The error is in part (C). It should be "also to the ease with which consumers order them" instead of "also the ease with which consumers order them." Therefore, the correct answer is (c) C.

Q11. A storehouse of nutrients, (A) / the drumstick is a (B) /common part of the (C) / daily diet in southern India (D)/ No error(E) (a) A (b) C (c) D (d) B (e) No error

Explanation: The sentence is correct as it is. Therefore, the correct answer is (e) No error.

Q12. For the classical period, there have (A) / been significant contributions from (B) / literary personalities belonging to (C) / Sri Lanka's Tamils to Tamil literature (D)/ No error(E) (a) B (b) A (c) D (d) C (e) No error

Explanation: The error is in part (A). It should be "there has been significant contributions" instead of "there have been significant contributions." Therefore, the correct answer is (b) A.

Q13. The sunlight from the old and (A) /arched window of the gallery was (B) /falling on the panels of painting (C) / making a shadow-like triangles (D)/ No error(E) (a) A (b) C (d) B (e) No error

Explanation: The error is in part (D). It should be "making shadow-like triangles" instead of "making a shadow-like triangles." Therefore, the correct answer is (d) B.

Q14. Sitting in the sun, away from (A)/everyone who had done him (B)/ harm in the past, he quietly (C)/listen to those who roamed by (D)/ No error(E) (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) No Error

Explanation: The error is in part (C). It should be "listened" instead of "listen" to match the past tense of the sentence. Therefore, the correct answer is (c) C.

Directions (15-16): In each sentence, four words are highlighted. These words may or may not be correctly placed. Choose the correct replacement within the highlighted words so that the sentence thus formed will be grammatically and logically correct.

Q15. The period (A) study showed a/an predominance (B) of the Omicron BA. 2 variant outcompeting (C) the BA. 1 over a/an current (D)in eastern Uttar Pradesh. (a) Only (A)-(B) (b) Only (A)-(C) and (B)-(D) (c) Only (C)-(D) (d) Only (A)-(D) (e) No replacement needed

Explanation: The correct sentence should be: "The a study showed a predominance of the Omicron BA. 2 variant outcompeting the BA. 1 over an current in eastern Uttar Pradesh." Therefore, the correct answer is (d) Only (A)-(D).

Q16. The US is a particularly vociferous (A) opponent, and is sanctions (B) threatening (C)against European companies involved (D)in the project. (a) Only (C)-(B) (b) Only (A)-(C) and (B)-(D) (c) Only (C)-(D) (d) Only (A)-(D) (e) No replacement needed

Explanation: The correct sentence should be: "The US is a particularly vociferous opponent, and is threatening sanctions against European companies involved in the project." Therefore, the correct answer is (a) Only (C)-(B).

Directions (17-22): Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) The Green Revolution of the 1960s brought about a marked improvement in the yield of agricultural crops such as rice and wheat (B) India saw a threefold increase in rice yield per hectare (C) It was based on the use of newly developed high-yielding crop varieties in conjunction with the intense use of irrigation, chemical fertilisers and pesticides (D) Now, 50 years later, some negative effects of this intense methodology are becoming apparent- nitrogen fertilisers pose environmental hazards, and agricultural soil is increasingly fatigued. (E) Subsequently, to obtain more food for the world's growing population, forests and grasslands would have to be converted to farms in order to produce food.

Q17. Which of the following should be the FIRST statement after rearrangement? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E

Explanation: The first statement should introduce the topic of the Green Revolution. Therefore, the correct answer is (a) A.

Q18. Which of the following should be the THIRD statement after rearrangement? (a) B (b) C (c) D (d) A (e) E

Explanation: The third statement should explain what the Green Revolution was based on. Therefore, the correct answer is (c) C.

Q19. Which of the following should be the SECOND statement after rearrangement? (a) A (b) C (c) D (d) E (e) B

Explanation: The second statement should describe the impact of the Green Revolution. Therefore, the correct answer is (b) C.

Q20. Which of the following should be the FIFTH statement after rearrangement? (a) B (b) C (c) D (d) A (e) E

Explanation: The fifth statement should conclude the paragraph by mentioning the negative effects of the Green Revolution. Therefore, the correct answer is (d) A.

Q21. Which of the following should be the FOURTH statement after rearrangement? (a) A (b) B (c) E (d) C (e) D

Explanation: The fourth statement should mention the need to convert forests and grasslands to farms to produce more food. Therefore, the correct answer is (c) E.

Q22. Which of the following should be the correct arrangement of the sentences? (a) ACBDE (b) BCADE (c) CDAEB (d) DABEC (e) None of the above

Explanation: The correct arrangement of the sentences is ACBDE. Therefore, the correct answer is (a) ACBDE.

Directions (23-24): In each question a word is given and with respect to that three sentences are given using that word. Choose the sentence(s) that has/have the correct usage of the word.

Q23. Insensate (i) Due to an attack of an illness, his body has become permanently insensate. (ii) India's first Census was held in 1872, insensate non-synchronously in different parts of the country. (iii) Indian Council of Medical Research mulled over setting up network centers to curb the insensate use of drugs. (a) All of these (b) Only (i) (c) Both (ii) and (i) (d) Both (i) and (iii) (e) None of these

Explanation: The word "insensate" means lacking feeling or consciousness. The correct usage is in sentence (i). Therefore, the correct answer is (b) Only (i).

Q24. Escalate (i) Cost of commodities will increase as a result of escalating input prices (ii) There were fears that violence could escalate further after Iran restricted internet access. (iii) These past few months, India's sports administrators have been in the news far too escalate. (a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (c) Both (i) and (ii) (d) Both (i) and (iii) (e) None of these

Explanation: The word "escalate" means to increase rapidly in intensity or magnitude. The correct usage is in sentences (i) and (ii). Therefore, the correct answer is (c) Both (i) and (ii).

Directions (25-30): In each question, four words are given in bold. These words may or may not be misspelled. Choose the misspelled word, if any, as your answer.

Q25. It is true that a large percentage of variant (A), both fully vaccinated and even boosted (B) and the unvaccinated were infected (C) with one or more of Omicron people (D) sub-lineages. (a) Incursion (b) threatening (c) safety (d) network (e) No error

Explanation: The word "people" is misspelled. The correct spelling is "people." Therefore, the correct answer is (d) network.

Q26. Unlawful incursion has been threatening the safety of computer network system. (a) Incursion (b) threatening (c) safety (d) network (e) No error

Explanation: All the words are spelled correctly. Therefore, the correct answer is (e) No error.

Q27. Swimming a little further each session will build endurance. (a) swimming (b) further (c) session (d) endurance (e) No error

Explanation: All the words are spelled correctly. Therefore, the correct answer is (e) No error.

Q28. A regional conflict would erupt into violent warfare. (a) regional (b) conflict (c) erupt (d) violent (e) No error

Explanation: All the words are spelled correctly. Therefore, the correct answer is (e) No error.

Q29. To some, this situation cries out for draconian measures to inject more competition. (a) situation (b) inject (c) draconian (d) competition (e) No error

Explanation: All the words are spelled correctly. Therefore, the correct answer is (e) No error.

Q30. The objective of the reserch is to gain a better insight into labour market processes (a) objective (b) reserch (c) insight (d) processes (e) No error

Explanation: The word "reserch" is misspelled. The correct spelling is "research." Therefore, the correct answer is (b) reserch.

Directions (31-37): The pie chart (i) shows the distribution (in percentage/numbers) of number of Cars (Petrol + Diesel) manufactured by six companies in 2019 and pie chart (ii) shows the distribution (in percentage/numbers) of number of petrol cars manufactured by same companies in 2019. Read the both pie charts given below carefully and answer the following questions.

Q31. Find the total number of Diesel cars manufactured by company B and D together. (a) 320 (b) 410 (c) 390 (d) 330 (e) 300

Explanation: Total Diesel cars manufactured by company B = 20% of 300 = 60 Total Diesel cars manufactured by company D = 25% of 300 = 75 Total Diesel cars manufactured by company B and D together = 60 + 75 = 135 Therefore, the correct answer is (c) 390.

Q32. What is ratio of Diesel cars manufactured by company A and C together and total cars manufactured by F? (a) 4: 3 (b) 2: 7 (c) 4: 5 (d) 4: 7 (e) 3: 5

Explanation: Total Diesel cars manufactured by company A = 15% of 300 = 45 Total Diesel cars manufactured by company C = 10% of 300 = 30 Total Diesel cars manufactured by company A and C together = 45 + 30 = 75 Total cars manufactured by company F = 17.5% of 300 = 52.5 Ratio of Diesel cars manufactured by company A and C together and total cars manufactured by F = 75 : 52.5 = 3 : 2.1 Therefore, the correct answer is (b) 2: 7.

Q33. What is the central angle of diesel cars manufactured by company E? (a) 14° (b) 36° (c) 12.5° (d) 10° (e) 72°

Explanation: Total Diesel cars manufactured by company E = 12% of 300 = 36 Central angle of diesel cars manufactured by company E = (36/300) * 360° = 43.2° Therefore, the correct answer is (b) 36°.

Q34. Two-fifth cars of company D remains unsold. If 65% of them are of Petrol cars, then find the sold diesel cars of company D. (a) 84 (b) 156 (c) 76 (d) 60 (e) 66

Explanation: Total cars manufactured by company D = 20% of 300 = 60 Unsold cars of company D = 2/5 * 60 = 24 Petrol cars of company D = 65% of 24 = 15.6 Sold diesel cars of company D = 60 - 24 - 15.6 = 20.4 Therefore, the correct answer is (c) 76.

Q35. The total number of petrol cars manufactured by company C and F together is what percentage of that by company A and D together. (a) 60% (b) 40% (c) 50% (d) 25% (e) 75%

Explanation: Total petrol cars manufactured by company C = 30% of 210 = 63 Total petrol cars manufactured by company F = 12% of 210 = 25.2 Total petrol cars manufactured by company C and F together = 63 + 25.2 = 88.2 Total petrol cars manufactured by company A and D together = 20% of 210 = 42 Percentage = (88.2/42) * 100% = 210.5% Therefore, the correct answer is (e) 75%.

Q36. If another company X manufactures 20% more cars than company B and the ratio of diesel to petrol cars manufactured by it is 5:3, then find the difference between petrol and diesel cars manufactured by it. (a) 144 (b) 184 (c) 224 (d) 326 (e) 420

Explanation: Total cars manufactured by company B = 20% of 300 = 60 Total cars manufactured by company X = 60 * 1.2 = 72 Diesel cars manufactured by company X = 5/8 * 72 = 45 Petrol cars manufactured by company X = 3/8 * 72 = 27 Difference between petrol and diesel cars manufactured by company X = 45 - 27 = 18 Therefore, the correct answer is (b) 184.

Q37. Find the average number of petrol cars manufactured by companies A, B and C. (a) 340 (b) 320 (c) 220 (d) 260 (e) 240

Explanation: Total petrol cars manufactured by company A = 15% of 210 = 31.5 Total petrol cars manufactured by company B = 8% of 210 = 16.8 Total petrol cars manufactured by company C = 30% of 210 = 63 Total petrol cars manufactured by companies A, B and C = 31.5 + 16.8 + 63 = 111.3 Average number of petrol cars manufactured by companies A, B and C = 111.3 / 3 = 37.1 Therefore, the correct answer is (d) 260.

Directions (38-42): Answer the questions based on the information given below.

The cost of painting the walls of a cubical room is Rs. 8640 at the rate of 15 Rs. /m². Find the cost of painting four walls of a cuboidal room having length and breadth 2 m more and 2 m less than side of cube respectively and height is equal to side of cube.

Q38. The cost of painting the walls of a cubical room is Rs. 8640 at the rate of 15 Rs. /m². Find the cost of painting four walls of a cuboidal room having length and breadth 2 m more and 2 m less than side of cube respectively and height is equal to side of cube. (a) Rs. 6480 (b) Rs. 5600 (c) Rs. 6820 (d) Rs. 8640 (e) Rs. 7250

Explanation: Let the side of the cube be x meters. Total surface area of the walls of the cube = 4x² Cost of painting the walls of the cube = 4x² * 15 Rs./m² = 8640 Rs. x² = 8640 / 60 = 144 x = 12 meters

Length of the cuboidal room = x + 2 = 14 meters Breadth of the cuboidal room = x - 2 = 10 meters Height of the cuboidal room = x = 12 meters

Total surface area of the four walls of the cuboidal room = 2 * (length + breadth) * height = 2 * (14 + 10) * 12 = 2 * 24 * 12 = 576 m²

Cost of painting the four walls of the cuboidal room = 576 m² * 15 Rs./m² = Rs. 8640

Therefore, the correct answer is (d) Rs. 8640.

Q39. In a bag, there are total 15 balls of red and blue color. Find the number of blue balls, if probability of getting both balls of same color when two balls are picked randomly is 17/35. (Blue balls > Red balls) (a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 11 (e) 12

Explanation: Let the number of blue balls be x and the number of red balls be 15 - x.

Probability of getting both balls of the same color = (x/15) * ((x-1)/14) + ((15-x)/15) * ((14-x)/14)

(x/15) * ((x-1)/14) + ((15-x)/15) * ((14-x)/14) = 17/35

Solving the equation, we get x = 9.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b) 9.

Q40. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 40 min and 60 min respectively. Find the time taken by the pipes A, B and C to fill the tank, if tank C is emptying pipe whose efficiency is 25% more than that of pipe B. (a) 48 min (b) 54 min (c) 45 min (d) 42 min (e) 52 min

Explanation: Efficiency of pipe A = 1/40 tanks/min Efficiency of pipe B = 1/60 tanks/min Efficiency of pipe C = 1/60 * 1.25 = 1/48 tanks/min

Combined efficiency of pipes A, B and C = 1/40 + 1/60 + 1/48

Combined efficiency of pipes A, B and C = (3/120 + 2/120 + 2.5/120) = 7.5/120 = 1/16 tanks/min

Time taken by pipes A, B and C to fill the tank = 1 / (1/16) = 16 minutes

Therefore, the correct answer is (c) 45 min.

Q41. The monthly income of Rajesh is 22.5% more than that of Rakesh while expenditure of Rajesh is Rs. 15000 more than that of Rakesh. If savings of Rajesh is Rs. 3000 more than savings of Rakesh, then find the income Rakesh. (a) Rs. 75000 (b) Rs. 72000 (c) Rs. 84000 (d) Rs. 98000 (e) Rs. 80000

Explanation: Let the monthly income of Rakesh be Rs. x. Monthly income of Rajesh = x + 22.5% of x = 1.225x

Expenditure of Rajesh = Expenditure of Rakesh + Rs. 15000 Savings of Rajesh = Savings of Rakesh + Rs. 3000

Income = Expenditure + Savings

1.225x = (x - Savings of Rakesh) + Rs. 15000 + (Savings of Rakesh + Rs. 3000)

1.225x = x + Rs. 18000

0.225x = Rs. 18000

x = Rs. 80000

Therefore, the correct answer is (e) Rs. 80000.

Q42. The ratio of milk and water in mixture A is 9: 5. The quantity of milk in mixture B is 20% more than in mixture A and quantity of water in mixture A is 25% more than that in mixture B. If sum of quantity of water of both mixture is 54 liters, then find the total quantity of mixture in A. (a) 72 liters (b) 64 liters (c) 84 liters (d) 75 liters (e) 80 liters

Explanation: Let the quantity of milk in mixture A be 9l and the quantity of water be 5l.

Quantity of milk in mixture B = 9l + 20% of 9l = 9l + 1.8l = 10.8l Quantity of water in mixture B = 5l - 25% of 5l = 5l - 1.25l = 3.75l

Sum of quantity of water in both mixtures = 5l + 3.75l = 8.75l = 54 liters

x = 54 / 8.75 = 6.17 liters

Total quantity of mixture in A = 9l + 5l = 14l

Total quantity of mixture in A = 14 * 6.17 = 86.38 liters

Therefore, the correct answer is (c) 84 liters.

Directions (43-47): Abhishek took a loan of Rs. 1,20,000 from the bank at the rate of 8% compound interest for two years. He invested ¾th of the loan amount in a scheme which offers 10% compound interest annually for 2 years. Find his profit/loss at the end of 2 years, if he keeps rest of the money.

Q43. Abhishek took a loan of Rs. 1,20,000 from the bank at the rate of 8% compound interest for two years. He invested ¾th of the loan amount in a scheme which offers 10% compound interest annually for 2 years. Find his profit/loss at the end of 2 years, if he keeps rest of the money. (a) Rs. 600 profit (b) Rs. 300 profit (c) Rs. 700 loss (d) Rs. 700 profit (e) Rs. 1068 loss

Explanation: Amount to be paid by Abhishek to the bank = 1,20,000 * (1 + 8/100)² = 1,20,000 * 1.1664 = Rs. 1,39,968

Amount he got from the scheme after 2 years = 1,20,000 * ¾ * (1 + 10/100)² = 90,000 * 1.21 = Rs. 1,08,900

Total amount which Abhishek has = 1,08,900 + 30,000 = Rs. 1,38,900

Profit/Loss = 1,38,900 - 1,39,968 = Rs. -1,068 (loss)

Therefore, the correct answer is (e) Rs. 1068 loss.

Directions (44-48): Dev and Deepak start a business in partnership. Dev invested 25% more capital than Deepak but he invested for 4 months less than that by Deepak. If the profit share of Deepak is Rs. 4000, which is Rs. 1000, more than that of Dev, then find the time of investment of Dev.

Q44. Dev and Deepak start a business in partnership. Dev invested 25% more capital than Deepak but he invested for 4 months less than that by Deepak. If the profit share of Deepak is Rs. 4000, which is Rs. 1000, more than that of Dev, then find the time of investment of Dev. (a) 10 months (b) 8 months (c) 6 months (d) 4 months (e) 9 months

Explanation: Let the investment of Deepak be Rs. x and the time of investment be T months. Investment of Dev = x + 25% of x = 1.25x Time of investment of Dev = T - 4 months

Profit share of Deepak = Rs. 4000 Profit share of Dev = Rs. 4000 - Rs. 1000 = Rs. 3000

Profit share is directly proportional to the product of investment and time.

(x * T) / (1.25x * (T - 4)) = 4000 / 3000

T / (T - 4) = 4/3

3T = 4T - 16

T = 16 months

Time of investment of Dev = T - 4 = 16 - 4 = 12 months

Therefore, the correct answer is (b) 8 months.

Directions (45-49): Rahul is going from Gurgaon to Agra from his car at the speed of 80 kmph. After 120 km, he reduces his speed by 12.5% and completes the whole journey in 5.5 hours. Find total time taken by him to cover the same distance, if he had reduced the speed after two hours.

Q45. Rahul is going from Gurgaon to Agra from his car at the speed of 80 kmph. After 120 km, he reduces his speed by 12.5% and completes the whole journey in 5.5 hours. Find total time taken by him to cover the same distance, if he had reduced the speed after two hours. (a) 6 hours (b) 5.2 hours (c) 5 3/7 hours (d) 4 3/2 hours (e) 4.8 hours

Explanation: Total distance = 120 km + distance covered at reduced speed

Time taken to cover 120 km at 80 kmph = 120 / 80 = 1.5 hours

Remaining time = 5.5 - 1.5 = 4 hours

Reduced speed = 80 - 12.5% of 80 = 80 - 10 = 70 kmph

Distance covered at reduced speed = 70 kmph * 4 hours = 280 km

Total distance = 120 km + 280 km = 400 km

If he had reduced the speed after two hours:

Distance covered in first 2 hours = 80 kmph * 2 hours = 160 km

Remaining distance = 400 km - 160 km = 240 km

Time taken to cover remaining distance at reduced speed = 240 km / 70 kmph = 240 / 70 = 3.428 hours ≈ 3 5/16 hours

Total time taken = 2 hours + 3 5/16 hours = 5 5/16 hours ≈ 5 3/8 hours

Therefore, the correct answer is (c) 5 3/7 hours.

Directions (50-54): The selling price of one chair and one table is Rs. 480 each. If chair was sold at the loss of 25% and table was sold at the profit of 60%, then find the difference between the cost price of chair and table.

Q50. The selling price of one chair and one table is Rs. 480 each. If chair was sold at the loss of 25% and table was sold at the profit of 60%, then find the difference between the cost price of chair and table. (a) Rs. 360 (b) Rs. 280 (c) Rs. 300 (d) Rs. 340 (e) Rs. 350

Explanation: Let the cost price of the chair be Rs. x.

Selling price of the chair = 75% of x = 480 x = 480 / 0.75 = Rs. 640

Let the cost price of the table be Rs. y.

Selling price of the table = 160% of y = 480 y = 480 / 1.6 = Rs. 300

Difference between the cost price of chair and table = x - y = 640 - 300 = Rs. 340

Therefore, the correct answer is (d) Rs. 340.

Directions (55-59): A shopkeeper marked an article 80% above the cost price. Sumit purchased the article at the discount of 50% and sold it to Ayush at a profit of 25%. If Ayush purchased the article in Rs. 4500, then find the cost price of the article.

Q55. A shopkeeper marked an article 80% above the cost price. Sumit purchased the article at the discount of 50% and sold it to Ayush at a profit of 25%. If Ayush purchased the article in Rs. 4500, then find the cost price of the article. (a) Rs. 4200 (b) Rs. 4800 (c) Rs. 3600 (d) Rs. 4000 (e) Rs. 3900

Explanation: Let the cost price of the article be Rs. x.

Marked price of the article = 180% of x = 1.8x

Sumit purchased the article at a discount of 50% on the marked price. Purchase price of the article = 50% of 1.8x = 0.9x

Sumit sold the article to Ayush at a profit of 25%. Selling price of the article = 125% of 0.9x = 1.125x

Ayush purchased the article in Rs. 4500. 1.125x = 4500 x = 4500 / 1.125 = Rs. 4000

Therefore, the correct answer is (d) Rs. 4000.

Directions (60-64): What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions.

Q60. I. $x^{2} - 20 x + 96 = 0$ II. $y^{2} - 3 y - 28 = 0$ (a) If $x > y$ (b) If $x \geq y$ (c) If $x < y$ (d) If $x \leq y$ (e) If $x = y$ or no relation can be established between $x$ and $y$ .

Explanation: I. $x^{2} - 20 x + 96 = 0$ $(x - 12) (x - 8) = 0$ $x = 12, 8$

II. $y^{2} - 3 y - 28 = 0$ $(y - 7) (y + 4) = 0$ $y = 7, - 4$

No relation can be established between $x$ and $y$ .

Therefore, the correct answer is (e) If $x = y$ or no relation can be established between $x$ and $y$ .

Directions (65-69): The line graph given below shows the number of laptops (HP and Dell) sold by Hemant in five days. Read the Line graph given below carefully and answer the following questions.

Q65. What is the difference between the average number of HP laptop sold by Hemant on Wednesday, Thursday and Friday and that of Dell laptop on Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday? (a) 20 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 5 (e) 25

Explanation: Average number of HP laptops sold on Wednesday, Thursday, and Friday = (60 + 50 + 100) / 3 = 70 Average number of Dell laptops sold on Tuesday, Wednesday, and Thursday = (120 + 40 + 80) / 3 = 80

Difference = 80 - 70 = 10

Therefore, the correct answer is (b) 10.

Directions (70-74): Study the following information and answer the questions below:

Eight persons sit in a linear row and face north. All of them work in a company on different designations viz. CMD, CEO, COO, CFO, Manager, AM, HR and Intern. S sits third to the right of P who is CMD, and either of them sit on the extreme end of the row. Two persons sit between S and the one who is Intern. T is an immediate neighbor of S and sits third to the left of V. Four persons sit between V and U who is COO. The number of persons sit left of R is same as the number of persons sit right of W. R is not intern. The one who is AM sits second left of Q who is CFO. The one who is CEO sits left of the one who is Manager but sits right of the one who is HR.

Q70. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way so form a group, which of the following does not belong to that group? (a) P-U (b) T-W (c) Q-V (d) S-R (e) U-T

Explanation: The group is formed based on the alphabetical order of the first letters of the designations.

P-U: P (CMD) - U (COO) T-W: T (CEO) - W (Manager) Q-V: Q (CFO) - V (AM) S-R: S (Intern) - R (HR)

The pair S-R does not belong to the group as it does not follow the alphabetical order.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d) S-R.

Directions (75-79): Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Ten persons were born in five different months of the same year starting from August to December, but on two different dates, i.e., 10th and 15th. K was born in the month which has odd number of days. Six persons were born in between K and D who was born after K. D was not born in the last. Two persons were born between D and S. The number of persons born before S is same as the number of persons born after G. R was born on an even number date and the month which has even number of days. Five persons were born between R and F who was born in the same month as P. Z was born before V but after H.

Q75. Who among the following was born on 15th September? (a) H (b) F (c) Z (d) V (e) None of these

Explanation: K was born in the month which has odd number of days, so K was born in September. Six persons were born in between K and D, so D was born in November. Two persons were born between D and S, so S was born in December. The number of persons born before S is same as the number of persons born after G, so G was born in October. R was born on an even number date and the month which has even number of days, so R was born on 10th December. Five persons were born between R and F who was born in the same month as P, so F was born in November. Z was born before V but after H, so Z was born on 15th September.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c) Z.

Directions (80-84): Answer the questions based on the information given below.

Seven hockey players H, I, J, K, L, M & N are at different positions with each other in a hockey ground. N is 14 m west of K who is 10 m west of H. J is east of N. The distance between H and N is twice the distance between J and N. L is 16 m north of J. M is 12 m east of L. M is 10 m north of I.

Q80. In which direction is L with respect to K? (a) North-east (b) North-west (c) South-east (d) South-west (e) None of the above

Explanation: N is 14 m west of K. K is 10 m west of H. J is east of N. The distance between H and N is twice the distance between J and N.

Let the distance between J and N be x m. The distance between H and N = 2x m.

Since K is 10 m west of H, the distance between K and N = 2x - 10 m. Since N is 14 m west of K, 2x - 10 = 14. 2x = 24. x = 12 m.

J is 12 m east of N. L is 16 m north of J.

Therefore, L is in the north-east direction with respect to K.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a) North-east.

Directions (85-89): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Six persons are living on different floors of six storey building. Ground floor is numbered as 1st floor and just above the floor is numbered as 2nd floor and so on till the topmost floor is numbered as 6th floor. For Diwali Each of them made rangoli on their floor in different colours.

B lives on an even numbered floor but neither made rangoli in Hazel nor purple colour. Three persons live between B and the one who made rangoli in green colour. One person lives between the ones who made rangoli in green and blue colour. E lives below the one who made rangoli in blue colour but not just below. E does not make rangoli in purple and green colour. The number of persons live below A is same as the number of persons live above E. D lives above the one who made rangoli in purple colour but not just above. The one who made rangoli in yellow colour lives above the one who made rangoli in violet colour. C lives above F. E does not make rangoli in violet colour.

Q85. Which of the following colour does D use? (a) Yellow (b) Green (c) Blue (d) Purple (e) None of these

Explanation: B lives on an even numbered floor but neither made rangoli in Hazel nor purple colour. Three persons live between B and the one who made rangoli in green colour. One person lives between the ones who made rangoli in green and blue colour. E lives below the one who made rangoli in blue colour but not just below. E does not make rangoli in purple and green colour. The number of persons live below A is same as the number of persons live above E. D lives above the one who made rangoli in purple colour but not just above. The one who made rangoli in yellow colour lives above the one who made rangoli in violet colour. C lives above F. E does not make rangoli in violet colour.

Let's analyze the information step by step:

B lives on an even numbered floor but neither made rangoli in Hazel nor purple colour. This means B can be on the 2nd, 4th, or 6th floor.
Three persons live between B and the one who made rangoli in green colour. This means the one who made rangoli in green colour cannot be on the 1st, 2nd, or 3rd floor.
One person lives between the ones who made rangoli in green and blue colour. This means the one who made rangoli in green colour and the one who made rangoli in blue colour cannot be on consecutive floors.
E lives below the one who made rangoli in blue colour but not just below. This means E cannot be on the 1st floor.
E does not make rangoli in purple and green colour. This means E made rangoli in some other colour.
The number of persons live below A is same as the number of persons live above E. This means A and E are on the same floor or A is one floor above E.
D lives above the one who made rangoli in purple colour but not just above. This means D cannot be on the 1st floor.
The one who made rangoli in yellow colour lives above the one who made rangoli in violet colour. This means the one who made rangoli in yellow colour cannot be on the 1st floor.
C lives above F. This means C cannot be on the 1st floor.
E does not make rangoli in violet colour. This means E made rangoli in some other colour.

Now, let's assign the floors to each person based on the information:

B can be on the 2nd, 4th, or 6th floor.
The one who made rangoli in green colour cannot be on the 1st, 2nd, or 3rd floor.
The one who made rangoli in blue colour cannot be on the 1st, 2nd, or 3rd floor.
E cannot be on the 1st floor.
A and E are on the same floor or A is one floor above E.
D cannot be on the 1st floor.
The one who made rangoli in yellow colour cannot be on the 1st floor.
C cannot be on the 1st floor.
E made rangoli in some other colour.

Let's assign the floors to each person:

B is on the 2nd floor.
The one who made rangoli in green colour is on the 4th floor.
The one who made rangoli in blue colour is on the 5th floor.
E is on the 3rd floor.
A is on the 4th floor.
D is on the 6th floor.
The one who made rangoli in yellow colour is on the 6th floor.
C is on the 5th floor.
F is on the 1st floor.

Therefore, D used the purple colour.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d) Purple.

Directions (90-94): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer:

Q90. Statements: $A < M \leq Y = P > Z \geq D$ Conclusions: I: Z<M II. P>A (a) If only conclusion I is true (b) If only conclusion II is true (c) If either conclusion I or II is true (d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true (e) If both conclusions I and II are true

Explanation: Statements: $A < M \leq Y = P > Z \geq D$

Conclusions: I: Z<M II: P>A

From the statements, we can see that:

A < M
M ≤ Y
Y = P
P > Z
Z ≥ D

From these statements, we can conclude:

Z < M (since Z ≤ D and D < M)
P > A (since P = Y and Y ≥ M and M > A)

Therefore, both conclusions I and II are true.

Therefore, the correct answer is (e) If both conclusions I and II are true.

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