Solutions And Explanations for the IBPS PO Mains 2024 Memory Based Paper (1st Shift)

 

Explanations for the IBPS PO Mains 2024 Memory Based Paper (1st Shift)

Q1. Conclusions Based on Statements

• Explanation: The conclusions state that no number can be a digit and some digit can be a letter.
• Answer: (c) Statements: No digit is series; No series is number; All number is letter

Q2-Q6. Word/Number Arrangement

• Explanation: Follow the pattern of arrangement in each step to determine the position of elements.
• Answer:
  • Q2: (c) eofrst
  • Q3: (c) 128
  • Q4: (b) 5th to the right
  • Q5: (a) 3844
  • Q6: (d) 52

Q7-Q10. Seating Arrangement Analysis

• Explanation: Analyze the positions and preferences to determine the arrangement of associates and managers.
• Answer:
  • Q7: (c) Five
  • Q8: (d) Immediate right
  • Q9: (e) All I, II and III
  • Q10: (b) G - grey - associate

Q11. Relationship Expression

• Explanation: Determine the expression where G is the niece of M.
• Answer: (a) Only II and III

Q12-Q14. Sufficient Data for Questions

• Explanation: Determine which statements are necessary to answer the questions.
• Answer:
  • Q12: (e) Only statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question whereas both statements I and III are not sufficient to answer the question
  • Q13: (b) Only statement III alone is sufficient to answer the question whereas both statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
  • Q14: (a) Only statement I is the cause, and Statement II is its effect.

Q15. Letter Pairs from "INTERCHANGE"

• Explanation: Change vowels and consonants as specified and eliminate repeating letters to form a new arrangement.
• Answer: (b) K

Q16. Meaningful Word from Options

• Explanation: Use the specified parts of words to form a meaningful word.
• Answer: (c) Wish, Fish, Cost, Lane

Q17. Combined Words Analysis

• Explanation: Modify the words as specified and determine the sixth letter from the right end.
• Answer: (b) D

Q18-Q21. Circular Arrangement Analysis

• Explanation: Analyze the seating arrangement based on the given conditions.
• Answer:
  • Q18: (e) None of these
  • Q19: (a) 25
  • Q20: (c) Five
  • Q21: (e) None of these

Q22. Logical Conclusions from Statement

• Explanation: Identify the logical conclusions that follow from the statement.
• Answer: (d) Only I and II

Q23. Courses of Action for Border Tensions

• Explanation: Determine the appropriate courses of action to address border tensions.
• Answer: (d) Both I and II

Q24. Inferences from NEET-UG Exam Controversy

• Explanation: Identify the correct inferences based on the statement.
• Answer: (d) Both inferences 1 and 2 are correct

Q25. Cause-and-Effect Relationship

• Explanation: Determine the cause-and-effect relationship between the statements.
• Answer: (b) Statement II is the cause, and Statement I is its effect.

Q26. Incorrect Birthdate Combination

• Explanation: Identify the incorrect combination of person and birthdate.
• Answer: (e) Both (b) and (c)

Q27. Number of Persons Between P and R

• Explanation: Determine the number of persons born between P and R.
• Answer: (c) One

Q28. Relationship of I to Y

• Explanation: Determine the relationship of I to Y based on the given expressions.
• Answer: (d) Grandson

Q29. Number of Male Members in the Family

• Explanation: Determine the number of male members in the family based on the given relationships.
• Answer: (e) Can't be determined

Q30-Q34. Ship and Port Analysis

• Explanation: Determine the correct ship and port combinations based on the given conditions.
• Answer:
  • Q30: (c) Ship D
  • Q31: (e) None of these
  • Q32: (e) Only I
  • Q33: (d) M
  • Q34: (a) S

Q35-Q36. Symbol and Alphabet Analysis

• Explanation: Analyze the positions of symbols and alphabets in the sequence.
• Answer:
  • Q35: (b) @
  • Q36: (c) Three

Q37-Q40. Production Line Analysis

• Explanation: Calculate the number of products manufactured and the time taken based on the given conditions.
• Answer:
  • Q37: (c) 37
  • Q38: (c) 61
  • Q39: (d) 4:48 PM
  • Q40: (a) 9:45 AM

Q41-Q42. Car Occupancy Analysis

• Explanation: Determine the occupancy of cars based on the given conditions.
• Answer:
  • Q41: (e) None of these
  • Q42: (b) G

Q43-Q45. Direction and Distance Analysis

• Explanation: Determine the directions and distances between points based on the given conditions.
• Answer:
  • Q43: (b) South-east
  • Q44: (a) 47 m
  • Q45: (b) 258 m, South-east

Q46. Manufacturer of Vande Bharat Sleeper Trainset

• Explanation: Identify the manufacturer of the Vande Bharat Sleeper trainset.
• Answer: (c) Bharat Earth Movers Limited (BEML)

Q47. Radius Distance for Banking Access in Hilly Areas

• Explanation: Identify the radius distance for banking access in hilly areas.
• Answer: (d) 5 kilometers

Q48. Revised Limit on Public Deposits Held by HFCs

• Explanation: Identify the revised limit on public deposits held by HFCs.
• Answer: (b) 1.25 times

Q49. Regulator Not Promoting NCFE

• Explanation: Identify the regulator not promoting the NCFE.
• Answer: (e) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)

Q50. Deployment of Kavach System

• Explanation: Identify the route kilometers on which the Kavach system has been deployed.
• Answer: (a) 1,220 Route km

Q51. GMV Achieved by GeM During FY24

• Explanation: Identify the GMV achieved by the GeM during FY24.
• Answer: (b) ₹3.5 Lakh Crore

Q52. CAR Requirements for UCBs

• Explanation: Identify the CAR requirements for Tier-1 UCBs and Tier 2-4 UCBs.
• Answer: (d) 9% for Tier-1 and 10% for Tier 2-4

Q53. Parameters of Llama 3.1

• Explanation: Identify the number of parameters of the most capable version of Llama 3.1.
• Answer: (a) 700 billion

Q54. Position Limit for Index Futures and Options

• Explanation: Identify the position limit for trading members in index futures and options contracts.
• Answer: (b) ₹6,500 crore

Q55. NOF Requirement for NBFCs

• Explanation: Identify the minimum NOF requirement for NBFCs.
• Answer: (d) ₹10 crore

Q56. Extension of RoDTEP Scheme

• Explanation: Identify the date to which the RoDTEP scheme has been extended.
• Answer: (c) March 31, 2025

Q57. Location of D-Day Landings Commemoration

• Explanation: Identify the location of the D-Day landings commemoration.
• Answer: (d) France

Q58. Country on FATF's Black List

• Explanation: Identify the country on the FATF's black list since February 2020.
• Answer: (c) North Korea

Q59. Top Contributors to India's Registered MSMEs

• Explanation: Identify the top contributors to India's registered MSMEs.
• Answer: (b) Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu

Q60. Country for UNICORN Mast Co-Development

• Explanation: Identify the country with which India signed an MoI for the co-development of the UNICORN mast.
• Answer: (b) United States

Q61. Net Profit of PSBs During April-September

• Explanation: Identify the net profit of PSBs during the April-September period.
• Answer: (b) ₹75,000 crore

Q62. Anchor Point Not Listed in Payments Vision 2025

• Explanation: Identify the anchor point not listed in the Payments Vision 2025 document.
• Answer: (e) Internationalisation

Q63. Purpose of Guidelines for Greenwashing

• Explanation: Identify the primary objective of the guidelines for preventing greenwashing.
• Answer: (b) To prevent false or exaggerated environmental claims.

Q64. SPV Responsible for BharatNet Project

• Explanation: Identify the SPV responsible for implementing the BharatNet project.
• Answer: (b) Bharat Broadband Network Limited

Q65. Country Not Listed in Top 5 of NCI

• Explanation: Identify the country not listed in the top 5 of the NCI.
• Answer: (d) United States

Q66. Revised Transaction Limits for UPI

• Explanation: Identify the revised transaction limits for UPI 123Pay and UPI Lite.
• Answer: (c) ₹10,000 for both UPI 123Pay and UPI Lite

Q67. Reason for RBI's Business Restrictions

• Explanation: Identify the reason for the RBI's business restrictions on NBFCs.
• Answer: (d) Failure to maintain adequate capital reserves

Q68. CET1 Capital Ratio for Banks

• Explanation: Identify the minimum CET1 capital ratio for banks.
• Answer: (c) 5.5%

Q69. Company Securing Orders for Banking SuperApp

• Explanation: Identify the company securing orders for its banking SuperApp.
• Answer: (a) FSS Technologies

Q70. PSL Allocation for SFBs

• Explanation: Identify the percentage of ANBC that SFBs are required to allocate to PSL.
• Answer: (d) 75%

Q71. Indian Bank Inaugurating Branch in Singapore

• Explanation: Identify the Indian bank inaugurating its first branch in Singapore.
• Answer: (a) ICICI Bank

Q72. Launch Vehicle for Venus Mission

• Explanation: Identify the launch vehicle for India's maiden mission to Venus.
• Answer: (d) GSLV Mk-III

Q73. Director of Laapata Ladies

• Explanation: Identify the director of the film Laapata Ladies.
• Answer: (a) Zoya Akhtar

Q74. Government Scheme with Highest Interest Rate

• Explanation: Identify the government scheme with the highest interest rate.
• Answer: (e) Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY)

Q75. Fintech Firm Merging with North East Small Finance Bank

• Explanation: Identify the fintech firm merging with North East Small Finance Bank.
• Answer: (b) ZestMoney

Q76. Prize Money for International Booker Prize

• Explanation: Identify the prize money for the International Booker Prize.
• Answer: (c) £50,000

Q77. Target Year for Green Hydrogen Mission

• Explanation: Identify the target year for achieving a production capacity of 5 million metric tons of green hydrogen annually.
• Answer: (a) 2030

Q78. Paid-Up Capital of RBI When It Started Operations

• Explanation: Identify the paid-up capital of the RBI when it started operations.
• Answer: (b) ₹5 crores

Q79. State Hosting Women's Asian Champions Trophy 2024

• Explanation: Identify the state hosting the Women's Asian Champions Trophy 2024.
• Answer: (b) Odisha

Q80. Australian University with International Campus at GIFT City

• Explanation: Identify the Australian university with an international campus at GIFT City.
• Answer: (d) University of Wollongong

Q81. Ministry Promoting Lakhpati Didi Scheme

• Explanation: Identify the ministry promoting the Lakhpati Didi scheme.
• Answer: (c) Ministry of Rural Development

Q82. CRAR Requirements for UCBs

• Explanation: Identify the CRAR requirements for Tier-1 UCBs and Tier 2-4 UCBs.
• Answer: (d) 9% for Tier-1 and 12% for Tier 2-4

Q83. State Leading in MSMEs

• Explanation: Identify the state leading in terms of the highest number of MSMEs.
• Answer: (c) Maharashtra

Q84. Meaning of "R" in Lidar

• Explanation: Identify the meaning of "R" in Lidar.
• Answer: (b) Ranging

Q85. Name of Winged Vehicle in LEX-03

• Explanation: Identify the name of the winged vehicle used in the LEX-03.
• Answer: (b) Pushpak

Q86-Q88. Phrase Replacement for Contextual Correctness

• Explanation: Identify the correct phrase replacements to ensure grammatical and contextual correctness.
• Answer:
  • Q86: (a) Both (ii) and (iii)
  • Q87: (a) Both (i) and (ii)
  • Q88: (d) Only (iii)

Q89. Inference from Passage on Customer Service

• Explanation: Identify the most appropriate inference from the passage on customer service.
• Answer: (e) All (I), (II), and (III)

Q90. Synonym of "FOCUS"

• Explanation: Identify the synonym of the word "FOCUS."
• Answer: (b) concentrate

Q91. Inference from Passage on Online Marketing

• Explanation: Identify the most appropriate inference from the passage on online marketing.
• Answer: (b) Both (II) and (III)

Q92-Q94. Connectors for Cohesive Sentences

• Explanation: Identify the appropriate connectors to form cohesive sentences.
• Answer:
  • Q92: (c) i, ii
  • Q93: (b) ii, iii
  • Q94: (a) ii, iii

Q95. Phrasal Verbs with Same Meaning

• Explanation: Identify the pair of phrasal verbs with the same meaning.
• Answer: (b) iii-v

Q96. Correct Sequence of Rearranged Words

• Explanation: Identify the correct sequence of rearranged words.
• Answer: (a) E-A and F-C

Q97. Synonym of "FOCUS"

• Explanation: Identify the synonym of the word "FOCUS."
• Answer: (b) concentrate

Q98. Dual Nature of Online Marketing's Influence

• Explanation: Identify the dual nature of online marketing's influence on youth.
• Answer: (b) It simultaneously provides access to a diverse range of products and services through online platforms and creates unrealistic lifestyle aspirations through glamorized marketing strategies.

Q99. Role of Influencers in Online Marketing

• Explanation: Identify how the role of influencers contrasts with traditional advertisements.
• Answer: (d) Influencers contribute to a sense of relatability and authenticity by endorsing products in a personal context, whereas traditional advertisements often lack this individual connection and rely on generalized promotional content.

Q100. Replacement Phrase for "Springboard"

• Explanation: Identify the most appropriate replacement phrase for "springboard."
• Answer: (a) Act as a launching pad

Q101. Replacement Phrase for "Predictive Manner"

• Explanation: Identify the most appropriate replacement phrase for "analyzing market demands in a predictive manner."
• Answer: (a) Forecasting consumer trends based on available insights

Q102. Synonym of "OFFERS"

• Explanation: Identify the synonym of the word "OFFERS."
• Answer: (c) Provides

Q103-Q108. Word Fit in Blanks

• Explanation: Identify the most suitable words to fit in the blanks.
• Answer:
  • Q103: (c) Both (I) and (III)
  • Q104: (d) Only (I)
  • Q105: (b) Only (III)
  • Q106: (e) Both (II) and (III)
  • Q107: (e) Only (II)
  • Q108: (d) Only (I)

Q109. Distinguishing Feature of Chinese Zodiac

• Explanation: Identify the distinguishing feature of the Chinese zodiac's framework.
• Answer: (c) The Chinese zodiac integrates animal archetypes with a quintet of recurring elements, diverging from the annual orientation of Western astrology.

Q110. Relationship Between "Heavenly Stems" and "Earthly Branches"

• Explanation: Identify the relationship between "heavenly stems" and "earthly branches" in BaZi analysis.
• Answer: (e) They constitute an interdependent framework employed to elucidate cosmic influences shaping an individual's essence.

Q111. Sentence Rearrangement for Meaningful Paragraph

• Explanation: Rearrange the sentences to form a meaningful paragraph.
• Answer: (d) CBEAD

Q112. Sentence Rearrangement for Meaningful Paragraph

• Explanation: Rearrange the sentences to form a meaningful paragraph.
• Answer: (c) DBCAE

Q113. Emphasis of "Quick and Lighten Movement"

• Explanation: Identify the primary emphasis of the "quick and lighten movement" in Japan's approach to its aging population crisis.
• Answer: (b) A strategic and accelerated implementation of multifaceted measures to address the challenges of a declining workforce and rising dependency ratios.

Q114. Global Relevance of Japan's Demographic Crisis

• Explanation: Identify the global relevance of Japan's demographic crisis.
• Answer: (d) Japan's experience underscores the need for immediate global attention to pension sustainability and workforce management as universal concerns.

Q115. Impact of Population Shrinking on Japan's Economy

• Explanation: Identify the potential impact of Japan's population shrinking on its global economic ranking.
• Answer: (b) Japan's economy may contract due to a reduced labor force and declining domestic demand.

Q116. Japan's Strategies to Cope with Aging Population

• Explanation: Identify Japan's strategies to cope with its aging population.
• Answer: (b) Both (I) and (II)

Q117. Interchange of Words for Contextual Correctness

• Explanation: Identify the correct interchange of words to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
• Answer: (d) A-C and B-D

Q118. Synonym of "Stark"

• Explanation: Identify the synonym of the word "stark."
• Answer: (a) Sharp

Q119. Key Challenges for Japan's Pension System

• Explanation: Identify the key challenges for Japan's pension system.
• Answer: (d) Both (I) and (III)

Q120. Role of Historical Factors in Japan's Demographic Situation

• Explanation: Identify the role of historical factors in shaping Japan's current demographic situation.
• Answer: (b) Past declines in birth rates have compounded the current population decline and aging demographic.

Q121. Total Number of Cars Sold by E

• Explanation: Calculate the total number of cars sold by E based on the given conditions.
• Answer: (b) Z+214

Q122. True Statements About Defective Cars

• Explanation: Identify the true statements about defective cars based on the given conditions.
• Answer: (c) Both I & III

Q123. False Statements About SUV Cars

• Explanation: Identify the false statements about SUV cars based on the given conditions.
• Answer: (b) Both I & III

Q124. Difference Between Total Cars Manufactured by F and A & C

• Explanation: Calculate the difference between the total cars manufactured by F and A & C.
• Answer: (a) 5P/3

Q125. True Statements About Average Number of Unsold Cars

• Explanation: Identify the true statements about the average number of unsold cars.
• Answer: (a) only III

Q126. Percentage Difference in Unsold Cars

• Explanation: Calculate the percentage difference in unsold cars between A and B compared to D.
• Answer: (b) (P−1.5Z)%

Q127. Series Following the Same Pattern

• Explanation: Identify the series that follows the same pattern as the given series.
• Answer: (e) Only I

Q128. Seventh Term of the Given Series

• Explanation: Calculate the seventh term of the given series.
• Answer: (c) 83.6

Q129. Value of M

• Explanation: Calculate the value of M based on the given conditions.
• Answer: (c) 2a−2

Q130. Resultant of Adding 7 to 2a

• Explanation: Determine the resultant of adding 7 to the value of 2a.
• Answer: (d) (a) & (b)

Q131. Value of 'x'

• Explanation: Calculate the value of 'x' based on the given conditions.
• Answer: (b) 60+2q+30

Q132. Statements Not Required to Find Raj's Age

• Explanation: Identify the statements not required to find Raj's age.
• Answer: (b) Only (ii)

Q133. Difference in Average Temperatures

• Explanation: Calculate the difference in average temperatures based on the given conditions.
• Answer: (b) 5.5

Q134. True Statements About Number of Balls

• Explanation: Identify the true statements about the number of balls based on the given conditions.
• Answer: (a) Both (I) & (III)

Q135. Correct Statements About Number of Blue Balls

• Explanation: Identify the correct statements about the number of blue balls based on the given conditions.
• Answer: (b) Only (I)

Q136. Correct Statements About Probability of Picking Balls

• Explanation: Identify the correct statements about the probability of picking balls based on the given conditions.
• Answer: (a) Only I

Q137. Probability of Picking a Blue Ball from Bag C

• Explanation: Calculate the probability of picking a blue ball from bag C.
• Answer: (a) 11/60

Q138. Correct Statements About Number of Balls

• Explanation: Identify the correct statements about the number of balls based on the given conditions.
• Answer: (c) None

Q139. Option Correct About 'P'

• Explanation: Identify the correct option about 'P' based on the given conditions.
• Answer: (d) 65 is completely divisible by P

Q140. Final Quantity of the Mixture

• Explanation: Calculate the final quantity of the mixture after completing the three steps.
• Answer: (b) 18.5b

Q141. Difference Between Larger Root of Equation IV and Smallest Root of Equation II

• Explanation: Calculate the difference between the larger root of equation IV and the smallest root of equation II.
• Answer: (b) 4

Q142. Product of Larger Root of Equation I and Smaller Root of Equation IV

• Explanation: Calculate the product of the larger root of equation I and the smaller root of equation IV.
• Answer: (b) 8

Q143. Square of the Resultant Number

• Explanation: Calculate the square of the resultant number after adding the resultant to the value of B.
• Answer: (e) 121

Q144. Marked Price of Item D in 2022

• Explanation: Calculate the marked price of item D in 2022 based on the given conditions.
• Answer: (c) Rs 550

Q145. Ratio of Selling Prices of P and Q in 2022

• Explanation: Calculate the ratio of the selling prices of P and Q in 2022 based on the given conditions.
• Answer: (b) 41:90

Q146. Cost Price of Item R as a Percentage of Item S in 2024

• Explanation: Calculate the cost price of item R as a percentage of the cost price of item S in 2024.
• Answer: (b) 49.25%

Q147. Selling Price of Q in 2022

• Explanation: Calculate the selling price of Q in 2022 based on the given conditions.
• Answer: (a) Rs 2160

Q148. Ratio of Selling Price of A in 2022 to 2024

• Explanation: Calculate the ratio of the selling price of A in 2022 to 2024 based on the given conditions.
• Answer: (e) None of these

Q149. Correct Statements About Number of Students

• Explanation: Identify the correct statements about the number of students based on the given conditions.
• Answer: (d) Both I & III

Q150. Correct Option About Z

• Explanation: Identify the correct option about Z based on the given conditions.
• Answer: (c) (Y−X)2

Q151. Incorrect Statements About Average Number of Students

• Explanation: Identify the incorrect statements about the average number of students based on the given conditions.
• Answer: (d) Both II & III

Q152. Ratio of Total Number of Students Provides Training by A and B

• Explanation: Identify the ratio of the total number of students provides training by A and B based on the given conditions.
• Answer: (b) 11:5

Q153. Statements Required to Find the Selling Price of Article B

• Explanation: Identify the statements required to find the selling price of article B.
• Answer: (a) Either A and B together or B and C together are sufficient to answer the question

Q154. Statements Sufficient to Find the Area of the Square

• Explanation: Identify the statements sufficient to find the area of the square.
• Answer: (e) Either statement I and II together or statement III alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Q155. Statements Sufficient to Find the Total Quantity of Container A

• Explanation: Identify the statements sufficient to find the total quantity of container A.
• Answer: (a) Either (I) alone or (II) alone