SBI PO Prelims Previous Year Paper 2022 Mock 5
Directions (1-9): Read the given passage carefully and answer the following questions. Certain parts have been highlighted to help answer the questions.
Last year, the industry ministry identified several potentially rich sectors. These industries acquire the potential to spread their wings and impact the economy of our country positively. 12 champion sectors were identified, and the furniture industry is one such strong sector that can firmly stand by our country's 'Make in India' agenda. Such e-commerce furniture brands have changed the game for the furniture industry. It is so true that talent plus technology is the best way to innovate something in today's modern era. The online furniture brands have understood it well and it has been a boon to local artisans' and laborers' lives.
Technology can sharpen various aspects of the furniture industry. From manufacturing to delivery, technology can smooth out the whole process and be more understandable in terms of growth. The most crucial companies that offer positive economic growth to the furniture industry are those with a stable online presence. This has promoted the indulgence of modern technology in the furniture industry, and the importance of Make in India is significantly attracting Indians enough to invest in reliable Indian furniture brands for which online presence is a must. Therefore, any furniture company planning to widen their business will surely promote technology usage, which will result in an increase in skilled labor.
The whole concept of launching Make in India was to improve the living quality of rural regions by promoting employment, and the furniture industry of India still consists of companies that promote hand-made furniture. The major reason that has pulled back India from blooming its furniture industry to the maximum is its small-scale workers. Hand-made furniture is surely the best kind but if technology gets involved in the uniqueness of handmade, faster productivity will take place.
Q1. Potentially rich sectors selected by the industry ministry have (a) been provided with the highest budget by the government (b) the capability to grow further (c) significant positive impressions on the Indian economy (d) Only b) and c) (e) Only a) and c)
Q2. Which are the pivotal companies in the furniture industry for the economic growth? (a) Companies that mainly deal with the high-end furniture (b) Companies that operate their businesses on online platforms (c) Those which have an abundance of capital and manpower (d) Firms that are associated with the industry ministry (e) None of these
Q3. Which of the fundamentals can boost laborers' and artisans' growth? (a) Research and arrangement of investment as the primary objective (b) Business shouldn't rely on technology to get its product's marketing (c) Talent plus technology is the best ground for innovation in the contemporary world. (d) Customer-centric product for a positive customer experience. (e) None of these
Q4. As per the passage, what was the main reason to launch Make in India? (a) To make India a world leader in startup and skill development (b) Make India self-reliant by reducing its dependence on various imports (c) The betterment of living quality in rural areas by promoting employment (d) Both a) and b) (e) All of these
Q5. Which of the following will be the impact of the usage of technology in the handmade furniture industry? (a) More creativity in furniture (b) Better quality of product (c) Production cost minimization (d) Enhancement of productivity (e) None of these
Q6. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect as per the passage? (a) Technology facilitates the manufacturing and delivery processes. (b) Small-scale workers have demotivated the Indian furniture market from flourishing (c) Make in India is encouraging Indians to invest in reliable Indian furniture brands. (d) Usage of technology in the furniture industry will lead to an increase in skilled labor. (e) None of these
Q7. Which of the following word is synonym of 'Acquire'? (a) curb (b) defy (c) attain (d) entice (e) None of these
Q8. Which of the following word is an antonym of 'Crucial'? (a) trivial (b) conferred (c) augured (d) craved (e) None of these
Q9. Which of the following word is synonym of 'promote'? (a) grow (b) inhibit (c) forbid (d) extirpate (e) None of these
Q10. In each of the questions given below, four sentences have been given. Out of four sentences, one sentence has an error. Find out which of the following sentences has an error. If all the given sentences are error-free then choose option 'All are correct' as your answer choice. (a) The world's population is expected to hit a peak and then drop by the end of the century. (b) The recent National Games showed how a mega event could been hosted with smart planning. (c) The forex market is regulated by the RBI with impregnable exchange control regulations. (d) With the explosion of television channels, the world of the actors became more accessible to the common public. (e) All are correct
Q11. In each of the questions given below, four sentences have been given. Out of four sentences, one sentence has an error. Find out which of the following sentences has an error. If all the given sentences are error-free then choose option 'All are correct' as your answer choice. (a) Satellite data transfer provides poor connectivity and limited bandwidth. (b) When you discovers something, you find something that already existed. (c) Brazil promotes a vast array of actions for the advancement of human rights. (d) Snow forms when tiny ice crystals in clouds stick together to become snowflakes. (e) All are correct
Q12. In each of the questions given below, four sentences have been given. Out of four sentences, one sentence has an error. Find out which of the following sentences has an error. If all the given sentences are error-free then choose option 'All are correct' as your answer choice. (a) A heat wave is an extreme weather, and poses danger to human health. (b) This is going to be an era of entrepreneurship for building Indian economy. (c) Adobe has been accelerating document productivity and push the paperless agenda. (d) Human activities release large amounts of carbon dioxide due to fuel burning. (e) All are correct
Q13. In each of the questions given below, four sentences have been given. Out of four sentences, one sentence has an error. Find out which of the following sentences has an error. If all the given sentences are error-free then choose option 'All are correct' as your answer choice. (a) Earthquakes manifest themselves by shaking and displacing or disrupting the ground. (b) NGOs are define as nonprofit entities that are independent of governmental influence. (c) Japan is a highly developed country, and a great power in global politics. (d) I Bear a grudge against him for not taking me into confidence. (e) All are correct
Directions (14-18): In each of the questions given below a sentence is given with three words in bold. Choose the option which gives the correct sequence of these words to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
Q14. Nearly four years have withdrawal (A) since China's decided (B) from the project before Nepal passed (C) to grant the project to India. (a) ACB (b) BAC (c) CAB (d) BCA (e) No rearrangement required
Q15. India ranks countries (A) high in the list of quite (B) that make regular requests (C) for removal of online content. (a) ACB (b) BAC (c) CBA (d) BCA (e) No rearrangement required
Q16. The Indian Railways' coaches (A) to introduce (B) AC III tier economy class experiment (C) has started to pay off. (a) ACB (b) BAC (c) CBA (d) BCA (e) No rearrangement required
Q17. During the peak of the bagging (A) season, we keep placement (B) news about engineering graduates seeing (C) job offers worth lakhs of rupees. (a) ACB (b) BAC (c) CBA (d) BCA (e) No rearrangement required
Q18. Down a narrow street attention (A) the seawall, another fisherman draws hugging (B) to his house, whose roof has been tightly protect (C) in blue tarpaulin to wrapped (D) it from the waves. (a) A-B and C-D (b) Only A and B (c) Only C and D (d) A-C and B-D (e) No correction required
Directions (19-22): In each question, two words are omitted and replaced with blanks. Choose the correct pair of words from the given options that can fit into the blanks in respective order without altering the intended meaning.
Q19. We meet at very short __ not having had time to __ any new value for each other. (a) contrast, renunciate (b) delay, generate (c) intervals, acquire (d) motive, renovate (e) breach, regenerate
Q20. Lord Krishna's legitimate __ was Rukmini, daughter of the king of Berar; but Radha is always __ with him in his temples. (a) betroth, taken (b) consort, associated (c) kin, referred (d) believer, preferred (e) heathen, accompanied
Q21. Through her __ opinion articles, the backbiting editor is known for her __ of people she doesn't like. (a) abasement, vengeance (b) sumptuous, deafening (c) vengeance, submissive (d) tumult, suggestion (e) malicious, vilification
Q22. __ renovations to the restaurant, we experienced little inconvenience and no __ in service. (a) Apart from, fabrication (b) Though, saturation (c) In spite, contraction (d) Despite, diminution (e) Although, dissipation
Directions (23-27): The five sentences given below are parts of a narrative, but not necessarily coherent in the current order. Rearrange the sentences to form the correct narrative and answer the questions that follow.
(A) Also, as the black hole is a dormant one, its discovery by astronomers is an astounding achievement. (B) Astronomers think there are about 100 million black holes in the Milky Way, but almost all of them are invisible. (C) The closest black hole yet found is just 1,560 light-years from Earth, a new study reports. (D) Even though the black hole might be nearest black hole to Earth ever discovered, it is probably not the closest that exists. (E) The black hole, dubbed Gaia BH1, is about 10 times the mass of the sun and orbits a sunlike star.
Q23. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E
Q24. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E
Q25. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E
Q26. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E
Q27. What will be the correct order of the sentences after meaningful rearrangement? (a) ACDBE (b) CEADB (c) DABEC (d) EBCAC (e) BEACD
Directions (28-30): In the following question, sentences are given with a part in bold. The given phrase in the bold may or may not contain an error. The options following can replace the incorrect phrase. The correct phrase that is to be replaced will be your answer. If the sentences are correct then select 'No improvement required' as your answer.
Q28. Tourism has been one of the sectors severely effected by COVID-19. (a) sectors severe effected (b) sectors severely affected (c) sector severely affected (d) sector severely effected (e) No improvement required
Q29. New Delhi continue to affirm its commitment to diplomacy and the need for international cooperation. (a) continues to affirm its (b) continues to affirms its (c) continue to affirm their (d) continue to affirm it's (e) No improvement required
Q30. Global economic growth is slowing more then was forecast a few months ago. (a) more then were forecast (b) more than was forecasts (c) more than was forecast (d) more than have been forecast (e) No improvement required
Q31. Six years ago, average age of 8 family members was 27 years. Present average of 3 eldest members is 65 years and another 3 member's average age is 20 years. Out of remaining two one is 3 years elder. Find age of elder member out of remaining two? (a) 6 years (b) 5 years (c) 4 years (d) 7 years (e) 8 years
Q32. A and B invested Rs 2000 and Rs (2000+x) respectively. B withdraw from the business after eight months. If at the end of the year profit obtained by B is 20% less than the profit obtained by A, then find the value of x. (a) Rs 500 (b) Rs 400 (c) Rs 450 (d) Rs 600 (e) Rs 200
Q33. Mixture A and B contains petrol & kerosene in the ratio of 5:4 and 2:1 respectively. 20% of mixture from A and 50% of mixture from B is mixed to form another mixture C. If quantity of petrol in mixture C is 90 liters and ratio of petrol to kerosene in mixture C is 30:19, then find initial quantity of mixture A. (a) 100 liters (b) 160 liters (c) 150 liters (d) 200 liters (e) 360 liters
Q34. A solid spherical ball of radius 21 cm is melted to form 'n' solid hemispherical bowl. If radius of each hemispherical bowl is half of radius of spherical ball, then find sum of total surface area of all hemispherical bowls. (a) 15846 cm² (b) 16632 cm² (c) 16028 cm² (d) 16272 cm² (e) 16748 cm²
Q35. Arun invested Rs x in scheme I for three years at the rate of 12% p.a. on simple interest while Kush invested Rs (x+4000) in scheme II for two years on compound interest at 20% p.a. rate. Find sum invested by Kush if total interest earned by both is Rs. 3360. (in Rs.) (a) 6000 (b) 4500 (c) 2000 (d) 3500 (e) 5200
Directions (36-40): Study the table given below carefully and answer the questions. Table given below shows total number of students in four different class and number of students who do not participate. And table also shows percentage of students who participate in dance out of no. of students who participate.
| Classes | Total students | Number of students who do not participate | % of students who participate in Dance |
|---|---|---|---|
| III | 180 | 60 | 60 |
| IV | 150 | 50 | 45 |
| V | 200 | 55 | 80 |
| VI | 250 | 130 | 70 |
Note- Student participate only in either dancing or singing.
Q36. Number of students who participate in singing from class III is how much more or less than number of students who participate in dancing from class V? (a) 68 (b) 62 (c) 72 (d) 84 (e) 58
Q37. What is the total number of students who participate in either dancing or singing from all class together? (a) 442 (b) 524 (c) None of these (d) 485 (e) 584
Q38. Number of students who participate in singing from class VI is what percent of total number of students from class V? (a) 12% (b) 18% (c) 24% (d) 32% (e) None of these
Q39. What is the ratio of number of students who participate from class IV to the number of students who do not participate from class V? (a) 20:13 (b) 10:7 (c) None of these (d) 5:2 (e) 20:11
Q40. What is the average number of students who participate in dancing from class III, IV and VI? (a) 63 (b) 71 (c) 67 (d) 76 (e) 82
Directions (41-46): What will come in the place of question (?) mark in following number series.
Q41. 12, 48, 24, 96, ?, 192 (a) 48 (b) 24 (c) 64 (d) 60 (e) 12
Q42. 756, 774, 738, 792, ?, 810 (a) 700 (b) 712 (c) 724 (d) 720 (e) 748
Q43. ?, 3, 6.4, 11.5, 18.3, 26.8 (a) 2.7 (b) 2.3 (c) 2.1 (d) 1.6 (e) 1.3
Q44. 4, 262, 460, 606, 708, ? (a) 772 (b) 778 (c) 774 (d) 784 (e) None of these
Q45. 120, 208, 286, ?, 412, 460 (a) 360 (b) 364 (c) 354 (d) 340 (e) 348
Q46. 131, 143, 157, 175, 201, ? (a) 243 (b) 221 (c) 287 (d) 265 (e) 299
Directions (47-51): Line graph given below shows the total number of 'COVID-19' cases registered in AIIMS Delhi on five different days and the number of females 'COVID-19' cases out of total registered cases in these five days. Read the data carefully and answer the questions.
Q47. The total number of male COVID-19 cases registered on Friday is what percent more than the total number of male COVID-19 cases registered on Tuesday? (a) 301/2% (b) 331/2% (c) 371/2% (d) 35% (e) 40%
Q48. Find the ratio of the total number of female COVID-19 cases registered on Wednesday to the total number of male COVID-19 cases registered on Monday respectively? (a) 3:4 (b) 3:5 (c) 2:7 (d) 2:5 (e) 2:3
Q49. If 40% of the total number of male COVID-19 cases registered on Thursday is taken by the males having age above 40 years, then find the difference between total male COVID-19 cases registered on Thursday who are below or equal to 40 years and total female COVID-19 cases registered on that day? (a) 180 (b) 160 (c) 100 (d) 120 (e) 140
Q50. Find the average number of male COVID-19 cases registered on Monday, Tuesday and Friday? (a) 400 (b) 300 (c) 600 (d) 500 (e) 200
Q51. The total number of male COVID-19 cases registered on Wednesday is what percent of the total number of male COVID-19 cases registered on Monday? (a) 90% (b) 85% (c) 80% (d) 60% (e) 50%
Directions (52-54): Read the following data carefully and answer the questions given below. Ratio of students in class A to class B is 5:3 respectively and number of boys in class B is 40% of the total students in class B. Girls in class A is 119/9% more than girls in class B and average number of girls in both classes are 19.
Q52. Find the total boys in both the class together. (a) 26 (b) 52 (c) 38 (d) 42 (e) 64
Q53. Girls in class B is what percent of boys in class A? (a) 60% (b) 80% (c) 40% (d) 20% (e) 100%
Q54. Find the respective ratio of girls in class A to boys in class B. (a) 5:4 (b) 5:3 (c) 3:5 (d) 4:5 (e) 5:2
Directions (55-60): What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions (You are not expected to calculate the exact value).
Q55. 59.90% of 1020.11 − 9.88% of 79.91 = ? ÷ 3 + 92.01 (a) 6 (b) 2 (c) 14 (d) 8 (e) 10
Q56. (10.22 × 9.94) ÷ 4.98 − ? = 6.97 (a) 19 (b) 5 (c) 45 (d) 27 (e) 13
Q57. 129.92 + 199.89 + 40.01% of 160.21 + 6.12 = ? ÷ 2 (a) 24 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 20 (e) 12
Q58. 1764.02 + 21.04 ÷ ? = 5 ÷ 12 × 167.97 (a) 413 (b) 478 (c) 394 (d) 446 (e) 492
Q59. 729.14 ÷ 5 + 11.01 ÷ 3 + 60.24% of 449.86 = ? (a) 1240 (b) 1610 (c) 1460 (d) 1090 (e) 820
Q60. 22.11 ÷ 2 + 199.98 − ? = 29.89% of 400.02 (a) 608 (b) 666 (c) 720 (d) 492 (e) 564
Q61. The discount allowed on an article is Rs. 960 more than the profit earned on the article. If the selling price of the article is Rs. 1920 and shopkeeper marked the article 100% above its cost price, then find profit % earned on the article. (a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 15% (d) 30% (e) 25%
Q62. A boat covers 44.8 km in downstream in 1 hour 36 minutes and speed of stream is 40% of speed of boat in still water. Find ratio of time taken by boat to cover 108 km in upstream to time taken by boat to cover 420 km in downstream respectively? (a) 5:3 (b) 3:5 (c) 3:4 (d) 2:3 (e) 1:3
Q63. Train P can cross a pole in 32 seconds and it can cross a 1200 meters long platform in 72 seconds. If speed and length of train Q is 72 km/hr. and 1280 meters respectively, then find the time taken by train P to cross train Q, while both running in same direction. (a) 224 seconds (b) 176 seconds (c) 216 seconds (d) 196 seconds (e) 210 seconds
Q64. Deepak and Shivam together can complete a work in 'T' days while the efficiency of Deepak and Shivam is in the ratio of 5:6 respectively. If Deepak alone started the same work and after 11 days Shivam joins Deepak and both together completed the remaining work in 31 days, then find 'T'. (a) 28 (b) 32 (c) 36 (d) 38 (e) 24
Q65. The average speed of a car is 7/5 times of the average speed of a scooter. A truck covers 240 km in 5 hours. If the speed of the scooter is 3/2 times the speed of truck, then how much distance will the car cover in 2 hours. (a) 204.8 km (b) 201.6 km (c) 118.5 km (d) 250.4 km (e) 196.2 km
Q66. Find the odd one out. (a) BVK (b) DLC (c) BKE (d) IRB (e) COE
Directions (67-71): Study the given information carefully and answer the questions given below. Six persons from I to N were born on the same date in January in six different years i.e., 1974, 1979, 1982, 1985, 1990 and 1993. Their ages are calculated as per 2022. Each of them belongs to six different states viz. Assam, Goa, Haryana, Gujarat, Delhi and Sikkim. All the above information is not necessarily in the same order.
The age difference between the one who belongs to Delhi and I is 11. At least four persons were born after I who belongs to Goa. The digit sum of the year in which N was born is half of his age. Two persons were born between the one who belongs to Haryana and K whose age is an even number. M belongs to Sikkim. The number of persons born between the one who belongs to Assam and L is same as the number of persons born between L and J.
Q67. How many persons were born between the one who belongs to Gujarat and L? (a) None (b) One (c) Three (d) Two (e) Four
Q68. Which of the following combination(s) is/are correct? (a) L - Delhi (b) N - Assam (c) K - 40 (d) J - Haryana (e) All are correct
Q69. In which of the following year L was born? (a) 1979 (b) 1993 (c) 1990 (d) 1982 (e) 1985
Q70. Who among the following persons is elder than N? (a) M (b) J (c) I (d) The one who belongs to Sikkim (e) The one who belongs to Assam
Q71. In which of the following pairs the age gap is more than 8 years? (a) M, L (b) J, K (c) I, N (d) M, J (e) N, L
Directions (72-74): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. Nine persons bought different dresses at different prices. Three persons bought dresses between M and K. T's dress is just costlier than M's dress. J's dress is costlier than T and not cheaper than K. Two persons bought dresses between J and P who doesn't buy the maximum costlier dress. P neither bought just cheaper nor just costlier dress than K. U's dress is just costlier than B and just cheaper than K. R bought a costlier dress than S.
Q72. How many persons dresses are cheaper than P? (a) Three (b) Four (c) Five (d) Two (e) More than five
Q73. Who among the following bought the third cheapest dress among all? (a) U (b) B (c) S (d) K (e) None of these
Q74. Which among the following statement(s) is/are not true? (a) T's dress price is more than U's dress (b) More than three persons bought dresses between B and T (c) J bought a cheaper dress than R (d) B bought the cheapest dress (e) None is true
Directions (75-77): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions below: Eight balls of different colours stuck on a snooker board at different directions and at some distance from each other, The black ball is 50 inches to the west of the green ball. The pink ball is 70 inches to the east of the purple ball. The grey ball is 20 inches to the north of the magenta ball which is 30 inches to the west of the yellow ball. The black ball is 40 inches to the south of the purple ball. The green ball is 40 inches to the north of the white ball. The grey ball is 30 inches to the west of the white ball.
Q75. In which direction is the Black ball with respect to the Magenta ball? (a) North-east (b) South-west (c) South (d) North-west (e) North
Q76. How far and in which direction is the yellow ball with respect to the green ball? (a) 60-inch, East (b) 40-inch, North (c) 60-inch, South (d) 30-inch, North (e) 50-inch, South
Q77. What is the shortest distance between green and grey-coloured balls? (a) 25-inch (b) 55-inch (c) 252-inch (d) 50-inch (e) None of these
Directions (78-81): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. Seven persons sit in a linear row such that all of them face north direction. Each of them buys different cars i.e., Ford, Tata, Fiat, Skoda, Hyundai, Toyota and Ferrari but not necessarily in the same order.
The one who buys Tata sits two persons away from G. G sits second from one of the extreme ends. The one who buys Ferrari sits second to the right of the one who buys Tata. M neither sit adjacent to G nor sit at the extreme end of the row. Three persons sit between R and M. The person who buys Skoda sits adjacent to M. H sits second to the left of D. One person sits between P and the one who buys Toyota. J doesn't sit adjacent to H. The one who buys Hyundai doesn't sit at the extreme end. The one who buys Ford sits to the left of R.
Q78. Who among the following buys a Fiat car? (a) G (b) P (c) R (d) H (e) D
Q79. How many persons sit between P and G? (a) Two (b) Three (c) Five (d) Four (e) None
Q80. Which among the following combination(s) is/are correct? (a) P-Fiat (b) R-Skoda (c) J-Ferrari (d) D-Tata (e) None is correct
Q81. Which among the following statement(s) is/are true? (a) R sits at the extreme end (b) H buys Skoda (c) P sits adjacent to H (d) More than two persons sit to the right of D (e) All are true
Q82. If we form a four-letter meaningful word by using the first, fifth, eighth and ninth letter from the left end of the word "INSTALLMENT", then which of the following will be the first letter of the meaningful word thus formed? If more than one meaningful word is formed mark Y as your answer. If no meaningful word is formed, mark X as your answer. (a) X (b) Y (c) A (d) M (e) E
Directions (83-87): In each of the questions below, some statements are given followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer of the question given below:
Q83. Statements: 23% Hockey is Tennis. All Tennis is golf Some Cricket is Golf
Conclusion: I. Some Cricket are not Hockey II. All Golf being Cricket is a possibility (a) Only I follow (b) Only II follow (c) Either I or II follows (d) Both I and II follow (e) None follows
Q84. Statements: Only a few Mug is Glass. All Jug is Glass No Plate is Jug
Conclusion: I. Some Glass are not Plate II. All Glass being Mug is a possibility (a) Only I follow (b) Only II follow (c) Either I or II follows (d) Both I and II follow (e) None follows
Q85. Statements: All Book are Journal. All Journal and Note. Some Diary are Note.
Conclusion: I. All Book are Diary II. Some Book are not Diary (a) Only I follow (b) Only II follow (c) Either I or II follows (d) Both I and II follow (e) None follows
Q86. Statements: All Grey is Magenta No Pink is grey All Pink is Green
Conclusion: I. Some Green are not Magenta II. Some Grey is Green (a) Only I follow (b) Only II follow (c) Either I or II follows (d) Both I and II follow (e) None follows
Q87. Statements: No Yen is Dollar. Some Rupee are Dollar All Paisa are Rupee
Conclusion: I. Some Rupee are not Yen II. Some Rupee are Yen (a) Only I follow (b) Only II follow (c) Either I or II follows (d) Both I and II follow (e) None follows
Directions (88-92): Study the given information carefully and answer the questions given below. Seven festivals will be celebrated on the 13th, 5th, 23rd, 17th, 29th, 7th and 2nd in six different months viz. January, February, March, April, May and June of a leap year. Two festivals will be celebrated in the same month.
Ram Navami will be celebrated on an even date in the month having 30 days. Holi will be celebrated two months before Ram Navami. Buddha Purnima will be celebrated on the 5th and just after the month in which Eid will be celebrated. Diwali will be celebrated in March but not just before the month of Eid. The sum of the dates of the two festivals which will be celebrated in a single month is 25. Lohri will be celebrated on the 13th but not in May. Eid and Vaisakhi will not be celebrated on the 7th.
Q88. Which of the following festivals will be celebrated in May? (a) Vaisakhi (b) Eid (c) Holi (d) Buddha Purnima (e) None of these
Q89. In which of the following month, Buddha Purnima will be celebrated? (a) January (b) April (c) May (d) June (e) Either April or June
Q90. Which of the following festivals will be celebrated in the same month? (a) Eid, Vaisakhi (b) Holi, Lohri (c) Diwali, Holi (d) Buddha Purnima, Ram Navami (e) Vaisakhi, Ram Navami
Q91. Which of the following combination is not correct? (a) 23 - Vaisakhi (b) 13 - January (c) 17 - May (d) Holi - February (e) Ram Navami - June
Q92. Which of the following festivals will be celebrated two months after Diwali? (a) Vaisakhi (b) Ram Navami (c) Eid (d) Buddha Purnima (e) Either Eid or Vaisakhi
Directions (93-96): In the following questions assuming the given statement to be true, find which of the conclusion(s) among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.
Q93. Statement: P > S ≥ Z, M ≤ N < Z, A ≤ S ≤ C
Conclusion: I. E ≥ A II. R < A (a) Only conclusion I is true. (b) Only conclusion II is true. (c) Either conclusion I or II is true. (d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true. (e) Both conclusions I and II are true.
Q94. Statement: 6779 > 5862 < 8241 = 5789, 5789 ≥ 7145 = 3914
Conclusion: I. 6779 < 5789 II. 3914 ≥ 8241 (a) Only conclusion I is true. (b) Only conclusion II is true. (c) Either conclusion I or II is true. (d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true. (e) Both conclusions I and II are true.
Q95. Statement: B > M > F ≤ P < Q, L > M > H
Conclusion: I. B > L II. F < H (a) Only conclusion I is true. (b) Only conclusion II is true. (c) Either conclusion I or II is true. (d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true. (e) Both conclusions I and II are true.
Q96. Statement: $& @>=$ # % < @ , # %> @! ≤ * ∧
Conclusion: I. % > @! II. ∗ ∧ < & @ (a) Only conclusion I is true. (b) Only conclusion II is true. (c) Either conclusion I or II is true. (d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true. (e) Both conclusions I and II are true.
Directions (97-100): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. Eight persons from A to H work in a school. Each of them has a different designation Director, Principal, Vice Principal (VP), Senior Teacher (ST), Teacher, Assistant Teacher (AT), Librarian and Assistant Librarian (AL) but not necessarily in the same order. The designations are given in decreasing order of seniority such that the Director is the senior-most person and the Assistant Librarian is the junior-most person.
There are three designations between G and C who is just senior to F. At most two persons are junior to H. G is senior to Senior Teacher but not the senior-most. D is junior to B and just senior to A. E is senior to both B and G who is not the principal.
Q97. Who among the following is a Librarian? (a) E (b) H (c) A (d) C (e) None of these
Q98. How many persons are senior to H? (a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four (e) More than four
Q99. Which of the following is the designation of B? (a) AT (b) ST (c) Principal (d) VP (e) None of these
Q100. Who among the following is just junior to H? (a) G (b) B (c) C (d) Either C or B (e) None of these
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