IBPS PO Previous Year Paper 2022

Directions (1-9): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been given in bold to help you locate them, while answering some of the questions.

A tourist's paradise, India is a magnum of diverse geography and cultures, offering 30 World Heritage sites, 25 biogeographical zones and attractive beaches. Tourism in India accounts for 6.8% of the GDP, and is the third largest foreign exchange earner for the country with USD 18.13 Billion. Neglecting the promotion of tourism is harmful to the Indian economy. In recent years, there has been an increased realization that the tourism growth potential can be harnessed as a strategy for Rural Development. With 69% population living in rural India, and almost 6.5 million village units spread across the country, India plays a vital role in harnessing rural tourism. The geographical diversity of India makes it a unique spot for harnessing rural tourism which can include tourist sites like desert, mountains, plains, plateaus, islands and coasts in different regions. India showcases a variety of cultural patterns having different lifestyles, practices, art and craft, and festivals. These can be incorporated and leveraged in the form of rural tourism.

Factors such as increasing level of awareness, growing interest in heritage and culture, and improved accessibility have fueled a move of trends towards rural tourism. This will not only preserve the culture and heritage of the country, but will also generate employment in the villages since it can be leveraged to provide skill development in tourism related job roles such as that of guide, driver, cook, housekeeping and hospitality to the tourists. Ministry of Tourism specifies that any form of tourism that showcases the rural life, art, culture and heritage at rural locations, benefits the local community economically and socially, and enables interaction between the tourists and the locals can be termed as rural tourism. Rural tourism may include multiple facets such as farm tourism, cultural tourism, nature tourism, adventure tourism, and eco-tourism. The country has seen successful rural tourism models in states such as Kerala's backwater, Karnataka's forest, and Tamil Nadu's temple.

Q1. What is the importance of tourism for the growth of the Indian economy? (a) Tourism is crucial for the enhancement of India's goodwill internationally (b) The contribution of travel and tourism to GDP in India is six and eight-tenths percent (c) Government earns a major part of its revenue from taxes on the tourism sector (d) Tourism is the third largest source of foreign exchange earnings in India (e) Both (b) and (d)

Q2. Which of the following fall(s) under the definition of rural tourism set by the Ministry of Tourism? (a) Tourism should have social and economic advantages for the local community. (b) Tourism should exhibit heritage in villages, rural life, art, and culture. (c) Tourism should promote interaction between tourists and the natives. (d) All of these (e) Only (a) and (c)

Q3. In what ways rural areas get benefitted from tourism? (a) Tourism gives rise to various employment and conserves culture and heritage. (b) Rural areas experience drastic transformation to become attractive enough for travelers (c) Local cuisines can get promoted through tourism, which in the long run helps them in getting GI tag. (d) Rural people get opportunity to take their culture to national and international level (e) Both (a) and (b)

Q4. What make(s) rural areas attractive tourist destinations? (a) The heterogeneity of culture of Indian rural areas attracts tourists (b) Green environment along with pollution-free fresh air tempts tourists (c) Diversity in physical features of rural areas of India is a ground for tourism (d) Hospitality of the rural population provokes tourism in Indian villages (e) Both (a) and (c)

Q5. Which of the following statements is incorrect as per the information given in the passage? (a) Adventure tourism is one of the several facets of tourism in India. (b) Karnataka's backwater has been a successful rural tourism model in India. (c) India has 30 world heritage sites and 25 biogeographical zones. (d) India's sixty-nine percent population resides in rural areas (e) All are correct

Q6. Which of the following words is a synonym of MOVE given in the passage? (a) convey (b) crawl (c) shift (d) mutter (e) None of these

Q7. Which of the following words is the most suitable for the given blank in the passage? (a) amplified (b) leveraged (c) fortified (d) invoked (e) None of these

Q8. Which of the following words is an antonym of VITAL given in the passage? (a) retreat (b) timid (c) precise (d) trivial (e) None of these

Q9. Which of the following words is a synonym of HARMFUL given in the passage? (a) detrimental (b) ameliorate (c) fugitive (d) consorted (e) None of these

Directions (10-14): In the following questions, six sentences are given. You have to rearrange these sentences to make a contextually meaningful paragraph. After rearranging the given sentences, answer the questions given below.

(A) Challenging Victorian dogma, Darwin argued that species were not immutable i.e., each one specially created by God. (B) That is all he wrote about the dawning of the single most consequential species on the planet. (C) In 1859, Charles Darwin published the most important scientific book that is ever written 'On the Origin of Species'. (D) Rather life on Earth had evolved through descent from a common ancestor with modification by means of natural selection. (E) It revolutionized society's understanding of the natural world. (F) But, surprisingly on Homo sapiens, Darwin made only a passing mention, that "light will be thrown on the origin of man and his history".

Q10. Which of the following will be the third statement after rearrangement? (a) C (b) B (c) D (d) F (e) A

Q11. Which of the following will be the fifth statement after rearrangement? (a) C (b) B (c) D (d) F (e) A

Q12. Which of the following will be the first statement after rearrangement? (a) C (b) B (c) D (d) F (e) A

Q13. Which of the following will be the second statement after rearrangement? (a) C (b) B (c) E (d) D (e) A

Q14. Which of the following will be the only coherent rearrangement of the given sentences? (a) CDEABF (b) FDCBAE (c) ECDBAF (d) CEADFB (e) BDCBFE

Directions (15-19): In the following questions, few sentences are given. Choose and mark the sentence which does not contain any grammatical or contextual error in it. If all the sentences are grammatically and contextually correct, mark the "all are correct" option as the answer choice.

Q15. (a) An appreciation of beauty can and should involve consideration of virtue and the improvement of morality character. (b) Greek scholars and poets were held discussions in the walled recesses of exedrae, which were often used for rest and contemplation. (c) High glucose levels disrupt the body's inflammatory system, leading for a host of complications, and a number of diseases. (d) Since the overthrow of the dictator Ferdinand Marcos, in 1986, the Philippines has been a democracy, if an often dysfunctional one. (e) All are correct

Q16. (a) Official days and months to recognize this or that group can seem gratuitous and ultimately meaningless while we as a society choose to take them seriously. (b) We argue rashly and adventurously, by reason that, as well as ourselves, our discourses have great participation in the temerity of chance. (c) Help is desperately needed to support wildlife rangers, local communities, and law enforcement personnel to have prevented wildlife crime. (d) Responding to the pandemic has lead to the creation of the most intrusive and stringent laws of modern times, affecting every aspect of our lives. (e) All are correct

Q17. (a) Critics have long argued that the expansion of the fair-trade movement across the European countries have come with significant costs. (b) Events in the early 1990s mark the end of legislated apartheid, but the social and economic effects remained deeply entrenched. (c) Long, floating bridges are extremely sensitive to stormy weather and high winds, which can cause them to destabilise. (d) Like all functional role concept, truth must be realized, and it may be realized in different ways in different settings. (e) All are correct

Q18. (a) In terms of social cachet and temporal precedence, bicyclists are believed to be worse off than everyone else. (b) Funnelling investments through banks that toed the government line allowed political considerations to take precedence over risk assessment. (c) Last year, the government issued every taxpayer a $1200 refund in hopes of restoring equilibrium to a depressed economy. (d) The variety of New York's geography provides not only great beauty but also opportunities for recreation. (e) All are correct

Q19. (a) In Descartes' system, it would appear that laws of physics are necessary or that eternal truths are necessary as well. (b) Travellers often complain that it isn't fair to be charged more for a hotel room during the summer from in the winter. (c) Email exchanges can often escalate or fizzle out, whereas face-to-face meetings often cut by some of the adversarial email responses sometimes generated by differences in culture and approach. (d) In an ideal society, a free people will be governed by a law that is not arbitrary, but rather corresponds to what is fit, and is able to be apprehended by reason. (e) All are correct

Directions (20-22): In each question, four words have been highlighted, which may or may not be in their correct positions. Choose the rearrangement order of these highlighted words from the given options so that it gives a coherent sentence.

Q20. Replacing the office's technology (A) computer outdated (B) with new system (C) would allow (D) the workers to get a lot more done. (a) ACDB (b) BCAD (c) DBCA (d) CADB (e) No rearrangement needed

Q21. The allure (A) of the fresh (B) herbs caused the chef to intended (C) more money than he spend (D) at the market. (a) BACD (b) DCAB (c) ABDC (d) CDAB (e) No rearrangement needed

Q22. There is a horizon (A) of outskirt (B) buildings on the industrial (C) of our small town, but we tend to ignore them since they ruin the cluster (D). (a) DCBA (b) DCAB (c) ABDC (d) CDAB (e) No rearrangement needed

Directions (23-25): In each question, four words have been highlighted, which may or may not be in their correct positions. Choose the interchange needed between them to make a grammatically correct and meaningful sentence.

Q23. My art project (A) required me to assemble (B) a clippings (C) of magazine collection (D). (a) Only (A)-(B) (b) Only (C)-(D) (c) Both (A)-(C) and (B)-(D) (d) Both (A)-(D) and (B)-(C) (e) No replacement needed

Q24. You will never be able to find a better (A) company than a dog, as a dog will always loyal (B) by you and be stand (C) to you if you treat (D) him right. (a) Only (A)-(C) (b) Only (B)-(C) (c) Both (A)-(B) and (C)-(D) (d) Both (A)-(D) and (B)-(C) (e) No replacement needed

Q25. The playground was jumped (A) with equipment (B) as fifty students filled (C) and climbed all over the mayhem (D). (a) Only (A)-(C) (b) Only (B)-(C) (c) Both (A)-(C) and (B)-(D) (d) Both (A)-(D) and (B)-(C) (e) No replacement needed

Directions (26-27): Each question below has one blank, which is indicating that something has been omitted. Find out which option can be used to fill up the blank in the sentence to make it grammatically as well as contextually correct.

Q26. The losing team made a \qquad\ but futile effort to catch up to their opponent. (a) illustrious (b) valiant (c) refrained (d) reached (e) redundant

Q27. My grandmother has extremely $$ health so she sees her doctor once a week. (a) cripple (b) reliant (c) splendid (d) fragile (e) elevated

Directions (28-30): In the following question, sentences are given with a part in bold. The given phrase in the bold may or may not contain an error. The options following can replace the incorrect phrase. The correct phrase that is to be replaced will be your answer. If the sentences are correct then select option (e) i.e., 'No replacement required' as your answer.

Q28. If I will study, I would have passed the exam. (a) I had studied (b) had I studied (c) I have studied (d) Have I studied (e) No replacement required

Q29. She felt an overwhelming desire to return back home. (a) desire of returning back (b) desires to return (c) desire to returned back (d) desire to return (e) No replacement required

Q30. No sooner had I closed my eyes than I fell asleep. (a) No soon had I (b) No soon I had (c) I had no sooner (d) No sooner I have (e) No replacement required

Direction (31 - 35): In each of these questions, two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answers.

Q31. I. $x^2-15x+56=0$ II. $y^2-8y+15=0$ (a) $x\ge y$ (b) $x\le y$ (c) $x>y$ (d) $x<y$ (e) $x=y$ or no relation.

Q32. I. $x^2+12x+35=0$ II. $y^2+7y+10=0$ (a) $x\ge y$ (b) $x\le y$ (c) $x>y$ (d) $x<y$ (e) $x=y$ or no relation.

Q33. I. $x^2-3x-40=0$ II. $y^2+11y+30=0$ (a) $x\ge y$ (b) $x\le y$ (c) $x>y$ (d) $x<y$ (e) $x=y$ or no relation.

Q34. I. $2x^2+14x-16=0$ II. $y^2-y-12=0$ (a) $x\ge y$ (b) $x\le y$ (c) $x>y$ (d) $x<y$ (e) $x=y$ or no relation.

Q35. I. $2x^2-x-3=0$ II. $2y^2-6y+4=0$ (a) $x=y$ or no relation. (b) $x\le y$ (c) $x>y$ (d) $x<y$ (e) $x\ge y$

Direction (36 - 40): Read the given data carefully and answer the questions. There are 900 students in a college and they are either from one or more categories i.e. A, B and C games. The ratio of total students in only A, only B and only C is $2:3:5$ respectively. Total students in all three categories are $50\mathrm{\%}$ of total students in only C. The sum of total students who are in only B & C but not A and total students who are in only A & C but not B is 155. Total number of students who are in A & B but not C are 30 less than total number of students who are in only B.

Q36. Find the difference between total students in all three categories and the number of students in category A. (a) 40 (b) can't determined (c) 50 (d) 55 (e) 32

Q37. Find the ratio of total students in category B to that of in category C? (a) can't determined (b) $2:3$ (c) $3:5$ (d) $2:7$ (e) $3:4$

Q38. If in only category A, $30\mathrm{\%}$ are boys. Find the total number of girls in only category A? (a) 56 (b) 70 (c) 49 (d) 72 (e) 80

Q39. Find the total number of students are in at most two categories? (a) 755 (b) 765 (c) 715 (d) 775 (e) 735

Q40. Find the total number of students are in only one category? (a) 300 (b) 500 (c) 400 (d) 600 (e) 800

Direction (41-45): What will come in the place of question (?) mark in following number series:

Q41. 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ? (a) 46 (b) 42 (c) 44 (d) 48 (e) 52

Q42. 24, 49, ?, 219, 388, 677 (a) 98 (b) 108 (c) 88 (d) 96 (e) 78

Q43. 48, 55, 76, ?, 160, 223 (a) 122 (b) 101 (c) 111 (d) 119 (e) 114

Q44. 15, 16.5, 19.5, 24, ?, 37.5 (a) 40 (b) 30 (c) 32 (d) 33 (e) 36

Q45. 2, 6, 30, 210, ?, 20790 (a) 1890 (b) 1860 (c) 1990 (d) 1830 (e) 1960

Q46. Present age of A is 12 years more than C, while C is three years younger than B. The ratio of present age of A to that of B is $6:5$. Find the sum of age (in years) of B and C ten years hence will be? (a) 117 (b) 103 (c) 107 (d) 111 (e) 105

Q47. A and B invested Rs. X & Rs. (X +900) respectively in a business. After eight months, B left the business. At the end of a year, the total profit is Rs. 5800 and profit share of B is Rs. 1000 more than that of A. Find X (in Rs.). (a) 1000 (b) 1600 (c) 600 (d) 1200 (e) 800

Q48. In a vessel water is 25% of the milk. When 10 liters of mixture was taken out from the vessel and 25 liters' milk was added in the vessel, then quantity of milk become 400% more than the quantity of water in resulting mixture. Find the initial quantity (in liters) of milk in the vessel. (a) 116 (b) 108 (c) 102 (d) 112 (e) 114

Q49. The sum of cost price of two articles A and B is Rs. 350. Both articles marked up 60% above cost price. If marked price of article B is Rs. 80 more than that of A, then find the cost price (in Rs.) of article A? (a) 165 (b) 135 (c) 155 (d) 195 (e) 145

Q50. A, B and C together can complete 66 2/3% of work in 2 days and A & B together can complete 30% of the work in 3 days. Find the time taken by C alone to complete 4 2/3 of total work. (a) 20 days (b) 15 days (c) 7.5 days (d) 5 days (e) 12 days

Directions (51-55): In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given with two blanks. For each question, five options are given, each containing two words. You have to choose the most suitable option that fits both the blanks grammatically and contextually.

Q51. Although Epsom and Ewell are $$ populated, more than two-fifths of the borough is as a green belt. (a) courageously, alarmed (b) densely, designated (c) brightly, terrified (d) morosely, spirited (e) sunnily, collected

Q52. The particularly $$ focus on the idea of a fully developed form in Aristotle's of humans derives from its dual role. (a) elegant, ambitions (b) dapper, operations (c) prominent, discussions (d) spruce, applications (e) formal, attractions

Q53. In summer, the region is bathed in an $$ of sunlight, with a "midnight sun" that $$ sets. (a) abundance, never (b) absence, there (c) violence, now (d) silence, below (e) vengeance, soon

Q54. This has $$ both local populations and the rest of the world, with rising sea levels and $$ weather events. (a) inspired, arcane (b) captivated, average (c) amazed, abstruse (d) depressed, supreme (e) affected, extreme

Q55. Which of the following words is the synonym of "curve" as highlighted in the given passage? (a) loop (b) pendulous (c) spiral (d) trajectory (e) abaft

Q56. Which of the following words is the antonym of "build" as highlighted in the given passage? (a) demolish (b) rejig (c) extraction (d) malign (e) squeeze

Directions (57-61): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been given in bold to help you locate them, while answering some of the questions.

A tourist's paradise, India is a magnum of diverse geography and cultures, offering 30 World Heritage sites, 25 biogeographical zones and attractive beaches. Tourism in India accounts for 6.8% of the GDP, and is the third largest foreign exchange earner for the country with USD 18.13 Billion. Neglecting the promotion of tourism is harmful to the Indian economy. In recent years, there has been an increased realization that the tourism growth potential can be harnessed as a strategy for Rural Development. With 69% population living in rural India, and almost 6.5 million village units spread across the country, India plays a vital role in harnessing rural tourism. The geographical diversity of India makes it a unique spot for harnessing rural tourism which can include tourist sites like desert, mountains, plains, plateaus, islands and coasts in different regions. India showcases a variety of cultural patterns having different lifestyles, practices, art and craft, and festivals. These can be incorporated and leveraged in the form of rural tourism.

Factors such as increasing level of awareness, growing interest in heritage and culture, and improved accessibility have fueled a move of trends towards rural tourism. This will not only preserve the culture and heritage of the country, but will also generate employment in the villages since it can be leveraged to provide skill development in tourism related job roles such as that of guide, driver, cook, housekeeping and hospitality to the tourists. Ministry of Tourism specifies that any form of tourism that showcases the rural life, art, culture and heritage at rural locations, benefits the local community economically and socially, and enables interaction between the tourists and the locals can be termed as rural tourism. Rural tourism may include multiple facets such as farm tourism, cultural tourism, nature tourism, adventure tourism, and eco-tourism. The country has seen successful rural tourism models in states such as Kerala's backwater, Karnataka's forest, and Tamil Nadu's temple.

Q57. What is the importance of tourism for the growth of the Indian economy? (a) Tourism is crucial for the enhancement of India's goodwill internationally (b) The contribution of travel and tourism to GDP in India is six and eight-tenths percent (c) Government earns a major part of its revenue from taxes on the tourism sector (d) Tourism is the third largest source of foreign exchange earnings in India (e) Both (b) and (d)

Q58. Which of the following fall(s) under the definition of rural tourism set by the Ministry of Tourism? (a) Tourism should have social and economic advantages for the local community. (b) Tourism should exhibit heritage in villages, rural life, art, and culture. (c) Tourism should promote interaction between tourists and the natives. (d) All of these (e) Only (a) and (c)

Q59. In what ways rural areas get benefitted from tourism? (a) Tourism gives rise to various employment and conserves culture and heritage. (b) Rural areas experience drastic transformation to become attractive enough for travelers (c) Local cuisines can get promoted through tourism, which in the long run helps them in getting GI tag. (d) Rural people get opportunity to take their culture to national and international level (e) Both (a) and (b)

Q60. What make(s) rural areas attractive tourist destinations? (a) The heterogeneity of culture of Indian rural areas attracts tourists (b) Green environment along with pollution-free fresh air tempts tourists (c) Diversity in physical features of rural areas of India is a ground for tourism (d) Hospitality of the rural population provokes tourism in Indian villages (e) Both (a) and (c)

Q61. Which of the following statements is incorrect as per the information given in the passage? (a) Adventure tourism is one of the several facets of tourism in India. (b) Karnataka's backwater has been a successful rural tourism model in India. (c) India has 30 world heritage sites and 25 biogeographical zones. (d) India's sixty-nine percent population resides in rural areas (e) All are correct

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