IBPS PO Prelims Previous Year Paper 2023

 

IBPS PO Prelims Previous Year Paper 2023

Directions (1-8): Read the given passage and answer the following questions based on it.

Emissions of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases plunged 4.6 percent in 2020, as lockdowns in the first half of the year restricted global mobility and hampered economic activity. Many hoped that this would mark the beginning of a more permanent shift downwards in emissions.

Emissions from the manufacturing and the energy sectors contributed the most to recent global increases based on updated information from the IMF's Climate Change Indicators Dashboard—a joint effort among national and international statistical organizations to provide timely data to help monitor the transition to lower carbon use.

As greenhouse gas emissions from human activities increase, they build up in the atmosphere and warm the climate, leading to many other changes around the world—in the atmosphere, on land, and in the oceans. While total emissions have climbed significantly above pre-pandemic levels, increases from transportation and households were more muted last year as the pandemic weighed on global mobility. This was particularly evident with the emergence of the omicron variant in the fourth quarter of last year. The public health policy measures in many countries drove down the emissions of households and of the electricity sector.

It will be important to monitor the emissions of both of these sectors as economies fully reopen in the context of historically high fossil fuel-based energy prices. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change has said that, in the scenarios they assessed, limiting atmospheric warming to the key level of around 1.5 degrees Celsius requires global greenhouse gas emissions to peak by 2025 at the latest, emphasizing that achieving this milestone is a crucial step towards controlling the severity of climate change. The new data from the climate dashboard underscore what some scientists have warned: time is running out, and we must urgently bend the emissions curve to achieve the necessary reductions to limit atmospheric warming.

Q1. According to the passage, why did greenhouse gas emissions decrease in 2020? (a) Reduced emissions from manufacturing and energy sectors (b) The introduction of global policy over capping greenhouse gas emission by 30% (c) Global mobility restrictions and economic activity decline due to lockdown (d) Increased use of renewable energy sources (e) The emergence of the Climate Change Indicators Dashboard

Q2. How do greenhouse gas emissions impact the climate, as mentioned in the passage? (a) They lead to increased atmospheric humidity. (b) They reduce atmospheric warming. (c) They cause changes in the atmosphere, land, and oceans. (d) They only affect the atmosphere. (e) Their impact on climate is minuscule thus cannot be judged effectively.

Q3. What specific role does the IMF's Climate Change Indicators Dashboard play, as mentioned in the passage? (a) Providing funding for renewable energy projects (b) Monitoring the transition to lower carbon use (c) Assessing the effectiveness of public health measures (d) Predicting future global mobility trends (e) Advocating for stricter emissions regulations

Q4. What is the significance of limiting atmospheric warming to around 1.5 degrees Celsius, as mentioned by the IPCC? (a) It prevents all climate-related changes. (b) It ensures immediate reductions in emissions. (c) It avoids the need for future climate action. (d) It reduces the risk of severe climate impacts. (e) It guarantees economic growth.

Q5. What is the overarching message conveyed by the passage regarding greenhouse gas emissions and climate change? (a) The world is on track to achieve the necessary reductions in emissions. (b) The Climate Change Indicators Dashboard is the sole solution to climate change. (c) Greenhouse gas emissions have no significant impact on climate. (d) Economic growth is more important than addressing climate change. (e) Urgent action is needed to reduce emissions and limit atmospheric warming.

Q6. What does the passage suggest about the relationship between the pandemic and greenhouse gas emissions? (a) The pandemic had no impact on greenhouse gas emissions. (b) The pandemic led to an increase in emissions. (c) The pandemic caused a temporary decrease in emissions. (d) The pandemic gave a significant time to construct a proper plan to curb greenhouse gas emissions. (e) The pandemic accelerated emissions from the manufacturing sector.

Q7. Which of the following words is the synonym of "curve" as highlighted in the given passage? (a) loop (b) pendulous (c) spiral (d) trajectory (e) abaft

Q8. Which of the following words is the antonym of "build" as highlighted in the given passage? (a) demolish (b) rejig (c) extraction (d) malign (e) squeeze

Directions (9-13): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is 'No error', the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

Q9. A nimiety of food were (A)/ spread over the tables and was (B)/ way more than any one (C)/ group of people could eat (D)/. (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) No Error

Q10. The skipper of the (A)/ boat guide the vessel (B)/ through the storm and made (C)/ it safely into the port (D)/. (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) No Error

Q11. Spunky and full of spirit (A)/, the little girl is known (B)/ for always doing things that (C)/ others are afraid to does (D)/. (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) No Error

Q12. The cell's nucleus is like (A)/ the conductor of a huge (B)/ opera who tell all the (C)/ performers what to do (D)/. (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) No Error

Q13. To avoid a calamity, the (A)/ police is asking everyone (B)/ to move away from (C)/ the burning building (D)/. (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) No Error

Directions (14-16): In each of the questions given below five words are given in bold. These four words may or may not be in their correct position. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it is then select option (e) as your choice.

Q14. A rugged (A) ceiling fan uses the time-tested induction (B) motor, which is typical (C) but may have limits (D) on energy (E) performance. (a) E-C (b) E-D (c) B-D (d) A-C (e) No interchange required

Q15. In behavioural economics, choices (A) are interventions (B) that influence people's choices to make certain decisions (C) without restricting the nudges (D) available to them. (a) D-A (b) E-C (c) B-D (d) E-A (e) No interchange required

Q16. Single-use plastics have emerged (A) as one of the world's most buried (B) environmental threats (C), with vast amounts of waste pressing (D) in landfills or dumped (E) untreated in rivers and oceans. (a) C-E (b) A-B (c) B-D (d) D-A (e) No interchange required

Directions (17-21): Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) Artificial intelligence and robotics are very recent technologies and risks for our world. (B) They may also inherit the full nature of creatures. (C) When humans see the past histories of AI and robotics, human beings can examine and understand the objectives and intentions of them to make life easy and assist human beings within different circumstances and situations. (D) However, currently and in the near future, due to the change in the attitude of robotic and AI inventors and experts as well as based on the AI nature that their capacity of environmental acquisition and adaptation, they may become predators and put creatures at risk. (E) They are developing their capacity dramatically and shifting their origins of developing intention to other dimensions. (F) Thus, finally they will create their new universe or the destiny of our universe will be in danger.

Q17. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement? (a) D (b) A (c) B (d) E (e) C

Q18. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement? (a) A (b) F (c) E (d) B (e) C

Q19. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement? (a) C (b) E (c) B (d) A (e) F

Q20. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement? (a) B (b) E (c) D (d) C (e) A

Q21. Which of the following should be the LAST sentence after rearrangement? (a) C (b) B (c) E (d) D (e) F

Directions (22-25): In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given with two blanks. For each question, five options are given, each containing two words. You have to choose the most suitable option that fits both the blanks grammatically and contextually.

Q22. Although Epsom and Ewell are $$ populated, more than two-fifths of the borough is as a green belt. (a) courageously, alarmed (b) densely, designated (c) brightly, terrified (d) morosely, spirited (e) sunnily, collected

Q23. The particularly $$ focus on the idea of a fully developed form in Aristotle's of humans derives from its dual role. (a) elegant, ambitions (b) dapper, operations (c) prominent, discussions (d) spruce, applications (e) formal, attractions

Q24. In summer, the region is bathed in an $$ of sunlight, with a "midnight sun" that $$ sets. (a) abundance, never (b) absence, there (c) violence, now (d) silence, below (e) vengeance, soon

Q25. This has $$ both local populations and the rest of the world, with rising sea levels and $$ weather events. (a) inspired, arcane (b) captivated, average (c) amazed, abstruse (d) depressed, supreme (e) affected, extreme

Directions (26): A word has been given in each question and has been used in the sentences given below. Identify the statements where the word has been used in a contextually and grammatically correct manner. If the word has been used correctly in all the three statements, then mark (e), "All of these", as your answer.

Q26. INTEREST (i) She developed a keen interest in painting during her college years and has since become a talented artist. (ii) The company's new product generated a lot of interest among consumers due to its innovative features. (iii) Sarah's interest in environmental conservation led her to volunteer at a local wildlife sanctuary. (a) both (ii) & (iii) (b) only (i) (c) both (i) & (ii) (d) only (iii) (e) All of these

Directions (27-30): Which of the following phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence grammatically correct? Choose the best option among the five given alternatives that reflect the correct use of phrase in the context of the grammatically correct sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (e) i.e., "No correction required" as the answer.

Q27. Demand for electronics is growing of all price segments, even as the production of these devices entails the use of scarce elements and high emissions. (a) is grown over all price segment (b) is growing across all price segment (c) is growing for all price segments (d) is growing across all price segments (e) No correction required

Q28. The coup-plotters may have sensed they would get support from the anti-Erdogan masses and the secular political class. (a) may have sensed they would get support (b) may have sensed they would get supported (c) may has sensed they would get supported (d) may have sensed they could get supported (e) No correction required

Q29. Although the Constitution doesn't provide for a fixed number of sessions or days of sitting, three sessions are typical held in each calendar year. (a) session are typically held in each (b) sessions are typically held in each (c) sessions are typically hold in each (d) sessions is typically held in each (e) No correction required

Q30. The ceiling fan market are undergoing a churn too, driven by policy imperatives and a regulation change. (a) is undergoing a churn too, driven for (b) is undergoing a churn to, driven by (c) is undergoing a churn too, driven by (d) is undergone a churn too, driven by (e) No correction required

Direction (31 - 36): What will come in the place of question (?) mark in the following number series.

Q31. 20, 32, 47, 57, 74, ? (a) 100 (b) 96 (c) 90 (d) 84 (e) 80

Q32. 32, 40, 53, 76, ?, 172 (a) 116 (b) 112 (c) 114 (d) 124 (e) 120

Q33. 40, 66, 116, 198, 320, ? (a) 470 (b) 490 (c) 510 (d) 480 (e) 520

Q34. 80, ?, 117, 168, 271, 478 (a) 84 (b) 104 (c) 96 (d) 92 (e) 90

Q35. ?, 161, 228, 299, 372, 451 (a) 100 (b) 110 (c) 90 (d) 120 (e) 80

Q36. 500, 50, 10, 3, 1.2 ? (a) 0.9 (b) 0.32 (c) 0.6 (d) 0.4 (e) 0.5

Q37. A shopkeeper marked up the price of article P by 20% and give discount of d%. Then he gets a loss of (d-11)%. If cost price of article Q is Rs. 200 and gets a profit of 1.5 d%. Then find the selling price of the article Q. (a) Rs. 335 (b) Rs. 305 (c) Rs. 300 (d) Rs. 345 (e) Rs. 330

Q38. A invested a sum of Rs. 20000.1 for 2 years and 10 days at the rate of 11% p.a. at compound interest. The amount he receives after two years again invested for same time at same interest rate in simple interest. Find the approximate simple interest he received. (a) Rs. 5421 (b) Rs. 5309 (c) Rs. 5390 (d) Rs. 5445 (e) Rs. 5530

Q39. In a container contains mixture of milk to water in the ratio of 3:2. When 75% of the mixture is taken out and 40 liters of mixture of milk and water added in which 40% is milk, then in the resultant mixture milk becomes 44 4/9% of total mixture. Find the quantity of milk in initial mixture. (a) $\frac{196}{7}$ liters (b) None of these (c) $\frac{360}{7}$ liters (d) $\frac{192}{7}$ liters (e) $\frac{320}{7}$ liters

Q40. A, B and C together can complete 66 2/3% of work in 2 days and A & B together can complete 30% of the work in 3 days. Find the time taken by C alone to complete 4 2/3 of total work. (a) 20 days (b) 15 days (c) 7.5 days (d) 5 days (e) 12 days

Directions (41-45): In each of these questions, two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer. (a) If x > y (b) If x ≥ y (c) If x < y (d) If x ≤ y (e) If x = y or no relation can be established between x and y

Q41. I. $4x^2+20x+25=0$ II. $2y^2+11y+15=0$ (a) If x > y (b) If x ≥ y (c) If x < y (d) If x ≤ y (e) If x = y or no relation can be established between x and y

Q42. I. $3x^2-14x+15=0$ II. $6y^2-31y+18=0$ (a) If x > y (b) If x ≥ y (c) If x < y (d) If x ≤ y (e) If x = y or no relation can be established between x and y

Q43. I. $4x^2-16x+16=0$ II. $10y^2-29y+21=0$ (a) If x > y (b) If x ≥ y (c) If x < y (d) If x ≤ y (e) If x = y or no relation can be established between x and y

Q44. I. $3x^2-37x+114=0$ II. $3y^2-46y+171=0$ (a) If x > y (b) If x ≥ y (c) If x < y (d) If x ≤ y (e) If x = y or no relation can be established between x and y

Q45. I. $2x^2+13x-150=0$ II. $y^2-17y+66=0$ (a) If x > y (b) If x ≥ y (c) If x < y (d) If x ≤ y (e) If x = y or no relation can be established between x and y

Direction (46 - 51): The pie chart (i) given below shows percentage distribution of total people (male + female) visited five different clubs and pie chart (ii) shows percentage distribution of total male visited in these five clubs. Read the data carefully and answer the questions given below. (i) Total people (male + female) = 2500

Q46. Total females visited club B and C together are what percent of total people visited club D. (a) 40% (b) 35% (c) 36.3% (d) 33.33% (e) 30%

Q47. If total females visited club F are 25% more than total female visited club E and total number of people visited club F are $\frac{11}{8}$ th of the total number of males visited club D, then find the ratio of total males visited club F to total male visited club E. (a) 29: 72 (b) 31: 72 (c) 37: 72 (d) 23: 72 (e) 25: 72

Q48. The average number of females visited clubs B, E and X is 126. If total males visited club X are 45% of total males visited club A, then find the difference between total number of people visited club X and total females visited clubs A and C together. (a) 198 (b) 218 (c) 208 (d) 168 (e) 178

Q49. If price of each visit pass for club A, B and E is Rs 150, Rs 200 & Rs. 250 respectively, then find the total revenue (in Rs) generated in these clubs by all the males visited. (a) 108000 (b) 136000 (c) 126000 (d) 96000 (e) 156000

Q50. Total Females visited clubs D and E together are approximately what percent more than total females visited clubs A and B together. (a) 33% (b) 48% (c) 45% (d) 41% (e) 19%

Q51. The ratio of males whose age above 25 years to below 25 years in club C is 5: 3, while the ratio of females whose age above 25 years to below 25 years in B is 1: 2. If total males in C and females in B whose age is 25 years are 20 and 40 respectively, then find the sum of total males in C and females in B whose age below 25 years. (a) 300 (b) 320 (c) 270 (d) 250 (e) 210

Direction (52 - 57): Read the information and answer the following questions. The table shows the number of males working in private and public companies and number of females working in private and public company in four (A, B, C & D) different cities.

Cities	Males in Private company	Males in Public company	Females (private + public)
A	$15x-2y$	y	55
B	16 x	16	108
C	9 y	24	74
D	84	21	85

Note - (i) Number of male employees in A are 50.

(ii) Total males working in private company from B and C are 154.

(iii) Total employees (male + female) working in any city = private companies + public company

(iv) Males/females working in any city = Sum of males/females working in private and public company

Q52. In city A, 40% of the females working in private company, then find the ratio females working in public companies from A to total males working in city D. (a) 11: 35 (b) 35: 11 (c) 13: 11 (d) 11: 13 (e) none of these.

Q53. The ratio of males working public company from C and females working in private company from city B is 4: 5. The females working in public company from B is what percentage of males in public company in city A. (a) 780% (b) 80% (c) 180% (d) 760% (e) 708%

Q54. Average number of male employees in C and F is 200.80% out of the total employees (private and public) from city F are females. Find the total employees in F is what percentage less/more than 100 y. (a) 360 (b) 400 (c) 410 (d) 430 (e) 420

Q55. 50% of the total females are working private company from all the cities. Find the total employees (male + females) working in public company from all the cities. (a) 297 (b) 250 (c) 255 (d) 232 (e) 231

Q56. In which of the following cities, males working in private company is less than the average number of males working in private company. (a) City C (b) City B (c) City A (d) City A and City B (e) City B and City C

Q57. Males working in city C is approximately what percentage of females working from B? (a) 80% (b) 190% (c) 180% (d) 106% (e) 70%

Q58. When 4 added into the numerator and 10 is subtract from the denominator of a fraction, then the fraction changed from $\frac{8}{11}$ to $\frac{3}{4}$. Now we subtract 4 and 10 from numerator and denominator of the fraction respectively, then find the new fraction. (a) $\frac{178}{244}$ (b) $\frac{184}{243}$ (c) $\frac{126}{254}$ (d) $\frac{168}{254}$ (e) $\frac{208}{254}$

Q59. The ratio of time taken by a boat to cover a distance in downstream to that of in upstream is 3 : 5. If the boat covers 90 km in downstream in t hours and 72 km in upstream in (t+1) hours, then find downstream speed (in km/hr) of the boat. (a) 20 (b) 36 (c) 24 (d) 30 (e) 18

Q60. 240 meters long train crosses a pole in x seconds, while the train can cross a 360 meters long platform in x+9 seconds. Find the time taken by the train to cross a dog who is running in the direction of the train at speed of 36 km/hr. (a) x seconds (b) 2x seconds (c) x+2 seconds (d) x-1 seconds (e) x+3 seconds

Q61. The ratio of difference between area of a rectangle obtained in two cases, first when length of a rectangle is decreased by 4 cm and second when breadth of the original rectangle is increased by 4 cm to the area of rectangle is 4: 9. Find ratio of numerical value perimeter to area of rectangle. (a) 2: 7 (b) 2: 5 (c) 2: 11 (d) 2: 9 (e) None of these

Q62. A and B started a business with investments of Rs.5X & and Rs. 5X-400 respectively. After six months, B added Rs. 200 and at the end of the year profit received by B is Rs. 510 out of a total profit of Rs.1110. Find the value of X. (a) 300 (b) 600 (c) 500 (d) 200 (e) 400

Q63. A spends 20% of his monthly salary on house rent and 25% of the remaining monthly salary on travelling. He spends his remaining monthly salary on food and children's education in the ratio of 3:5 respectively. If the difference between the amount spent on children's education and house rent is Rs.700, then find the monthly salary of A (in Rs). (a) 2500 (b) 4000 (c) 4500 (d) 5000 (e) 2000

Q64. A man age is (3p+2q) years and his only son's age is 'p' years while his only daughter's age is 'q' years. Man's son is three years elder than her sister. If man's wife is five years younger than her husband who is 34 years old, then find average age of the family (in years). (a) 14.5 (b) 19.0 (c) 16.5 (d) 22.5 (e) 20.5

Q65. A vessel contains 79.99 liters mixture of milk and water in which milk is 50% more than water. 20.03 liters of mixture is taken out and 59.99 liters mixture of milk and water mixed in the remaining mixture into the vessel. If in the resultant mixture the milk becomes two times of the water, then find approximate quantity (in liters) of water added. (a) 32 (b) 44 (c) 16 (d) 30 (e) 28

Directions (66-70): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions: Eight persons—A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H sit around a square table such that four persons face inside and sit middle of the table. Four faces outside and sit corner of the table. G sits second left of C. Three person sits between D and B. H sits opposite A but does not sit at the middle of the table. D sits 2nd left of A. F sits second to the right of C. E sits immediate right of B.

Q66. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which among the following does not belong to the group? (a) F (b) E (c) A (d) G (e) C

Q67. How many persons sit between G and F? (a) Five (b) Three (c) One (d) Two (e) None of these

Q68. Who sits sixth to the left of B? (a) D (b) A (c) G (d) H (e) None of these

Q69. Who sits immediate right of D? (a) G (b) C (c) F (d) A (e) None of these

Q70. Who sits second to the left of H? (a) B (b) C (c) A (d) F (e) None of these

Directions (71-73): In each of the questions below, some statements are given followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Q71. Statements: All Gate are Park Only a few Park are Road All Road are Subway Conclusions: I. No Gate is Subway II. Some Park are not Road (a) If only I follow (b) If only II follow (c) If neither I nor II follows (d) If either I or II follows (e) If both I and II follow

Q72. Statements: No Soap is Pen Only a few Soap is Eraser Only a few Eraser is Clip Conclusions: I. Some Eraser are Pen II. Some Clip is not Soap (a) If only I follow (b) If only II follow (c) If neither I nor II follows (d) If either I or II follows (e) If both I and II follow

Q73. Statements: Some Giraffe is Kangaroo All Turtle is Giraffe All Seal is Kangaroo Conclusions: I. Some Turtle is Kangaroo II. All Giraffe can be Seal (a) If only I follows (b) If only II follows (c) If neither I nor II follows (d) If either I or II follows (e) If both I and II follow

Directions (74): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions: In the certain code language: "All the time" is coded as "2 1 4" "The way home" is coded as "7 8 2" "Home is far" is coded as "3 5 8"

Q74. What is the code of the word "Way"? (a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 3 (e) None of these

Q75. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word from the 4th, 5th, 8th and 10th letters of the word "INTERCHANGE" using each letter only once, then what is the last letter of the word. If no such meaningful word can be formed the answer is "X" and if more than one such meaningful word can be formed, the answer will be "Z". (a) E (b) X (c) A (d) R (e) Z

Directions (76-80): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below: Five boxes A, B, C, D and E are kept one above the other in a stack but not necessarily in the same order. Each box contains different fruits i.e., Orange, Mango, Apple, Banana, and Guava but not necessarily in the same order. One box gap between box E and the box which contains Mango. Two boxes gap between the box which contains Orange and Banana. Apple box placed immediate below Banana box. Two boxes gap between box E and box B which contains Banana. Box A is placed immediately above box C.

Q76. Which of the following box is placed immediately below Box E? (a) Box A (b) Box B (c) Box D (d) Box C (e) None of these

Q77. How many boxes are placed between Box E and Box D? (a) One (b) Two (c) None (d) Three (e) None of these

Q78. Which of the following box contains Guava? (a) Box B (b) Box A (c) Box D (d) Box C (e) Box E

Q79. How many boxes are placed between Guava and Apple boxes? (a) Three (b) Four (c) One (d) Two (e) None of these

Q80. Which of the following box contains Apple? (a) Box D (b) Box A (c) Box B (d) Box C (e) Box E

Directions (81-83): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Point A is 11 m to the west of Point B. Point C is 8 m to the south of Point B. Point C is 1 m to the west of Point J. Point J is 12 m to the south of Point H. Point D is 11 m to the east of Point J. Point E is 6 m to the south of Point D. Point F is 17 m to the west of Point E. Point G is in the north of Point F and to the west of Point H.

Q81. What is the shortest distance between Point G and Point F? (a) 17 m (b) 18 m (c) 19 m (d) 21 m (e) None of these

Q82. What is the direction of Point F with respect to Point D? (a) South (b) North (c) South-west (d) North-east (e) None of these

Q83. What is the direction of Point G with respect to Point E? (a) North (b) West (c) North-west (d) South-west (e) None of these

Directions (84-88): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Six persons i.e., R, T, P, U, S and Q travel to the different states i.e., Delhi, Sikkim, Odisha, Goa, Kerala and Assam on two different dates i.e., 9th and 26th of three different months viz. May, June and July of the same year but not necessarily in the same order. One person travel between P and the person who travels to Delhi. The person who travels to Delhi neither travels in month having an even number of days nor on even date. The person who travels to Delhi and the person who travels to Goa is not the first person to travel. Two Person travels between T and U who travels to Goa. T travels after P. The person who travels to Odisha travels just before S. Two persons travel between the person who travels to Kerala and the person who travels to Assam. U does not travel just after the person who travels to Assam. The number of persons travel between Q and S is one more than the number of person travel before R.

Q84. Who travels in the month of June? (a) The person who travels to Assam (b) Q (c) T (d) The person who travels to Sikkim (e) None of these

Q85. Who among the following person travel on 26th June? (a) T (b) Q (c) R (d) S (e) None of these

Q86. How many persons travel after the person who travel to Odisha? (a) One (b) Three (c) Two (d) Four (e) None of these

Q87. Who among the following person travels to Sikkim? (a) T (b) S (c) P (d) Q (e) None of these

Q88. Which of the following combination(s) is/are correct? (a) R - Goa (b) P -Assam (c) S - Assam (d) R-Sikkim (e) All are true

Q89. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word 'ASPIRING', each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet (both in forward and backward directions)? (a) Three (b) Four (c) One (d) Two (e) None of these

Directions (90-94): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Nine persons L, N, O, P, Q, W, Y, V and Z live in three different cities Barcelona, Dehradun and Texas but not necessarily in the same order. Q lives with V but neither in Texas nor Dehradun. P lives only with Z but not in Texas. W does not live with V. N neither lives with Y nor in Dehradun. O either lives in Dehradun or Texas. N does not live in Texas. O lives with L.

Q90. Who among the persons lives with W? (a) N (b) Q (c) Y (d) Z (e) None of these

Q91. Which city does O live in? (a) Barcelona (b) Dehradun (c) Texas (d) Either Texas or Dehradun (e) None of the above

Q92. How many persons live in Texas? (a) Three (b) Five (c) Two (d) Four (e) None of the above

Q93. Who does not live with W? (a) O (b) Q (c) Y (d) L (e) None of the above

Q94. Which of the following statement is true? I. Q and Y live in same city II. Y lives with W III. More than two persons live in Texas (a) Both II and III (b) Only I (c) Both I and II (d) Only III (e) Both I and III

Directions (95-97): In this question, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer.

Q95. Statements: $U>I\le L\le O;R<T\le Y>E;X>Y$ $>0 \leq B$ Conclusions: I. I < X II. R > U (a) If only conclusion I is true (b) If only conclusion II is true (c) If either conclusion I or II is true (d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true (e) If both conclusions I and II are true

Q96. Statements: $7>5<9\ge 3;4>5\ge 0<2;6>8$ $\leq 4>1$ Conclusions: I. 7 > 6 II. 1 > 2 (a) If only conclusion I is true (b) If only conclusion II is true (c) If either conclusion I or II is true (d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true (e) If both conclusions I and II are true

Q97. Statements: $M\le O>T>R>E;N=H\le R>K$ $<U$ Conclusions: I. E > N II. H ≥ E (a) If only conclusion I is true (b) If only conclusion II is true (c) If either conclusion I or II is true (d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true (e) If both conclusions I and II are true

Directions (98-100): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions: Certain numbers of persons sit in a row face north. Two persons sit between Q and P. P sits 3rd to the left of L. B sits adjacent to L. Four persons sit between B and Q who sits just right of D. The numbers of persons sit between Q and P is one more than the numbers of persons sit between R and Q. S sits 2nd to the left of R. Two persons sit between S and E. The numbers of persons sit between E and S is same as the numbers of persons sit to the left of E. K sits at one of the extreme ends and two places away from L.

Q98. Who sits at the rightmost end of the row? (a) P (b) K (c) R (d) D (e) S

Q99. How many persons sit between B and E? (a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 17 (d) 14 (e) None of these

Q100. How many persons sit in the row? (a) 17 (b) 19 (c) 18 (d) 16 (e) None of these

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