IBPS PO Prelims 2021 Memory Based Paper : Based on 4th December 2021

 

IBPS PO Prelims 2021 Memory Based Paper : Based on 4th December 2021

Directions (1-3): A word has been given in each question and has been used in the sentences given below. Identify the statements where the word has been used in a contextually and grammatically correct manner. If the word has been used incorrectly in all the statements, mark (e), "None of these", as your answer.

Q1. Fellow

(i) The Central Vigilance Commission asked all public sector banks to fellow time limit set by it for timely completion of disciplinary proceedings. (ii) Company is seeking highly motivated research fellow to perform high-impact (iii) Volunteers help fellow villagers access healthcare in conflict-affected eastern Ukraine. (a) only (i) (b) only (ii) (c) both (ii) and (i) (d) both (ii) and (iii) (e) none of these

Q2. Accent

(i) There has been much discussion about celebrity's accent in a reality show. (ii) Temple jewellery was mostly made from gold and silver and finished with handcrafted accents. (iii) Succeeding public authorities cannot accent the work of their predecessors. (a) only (ii) (b) both (i) and (ii) (c) both (ii) and (iii) (d) all (i), (ii), (iii) (e) none of these

Q3. Wind

(i) It stated that the Officers must establish a close wind with laboratories for expediting the results of genomic analysis (ii) Wind your arm with a bandage. (iii) The wind of a university is often judged by the collective achievements of its alumni (a) only (ii) (b) both (i) and (ii) (c) both (ii) and (iii) (d) all (i), (ii), (iii) (e) none of these

Directions (4-13): Read the following passage and answer the given questions based on the information provided in the passage.

With the advancement of digital technology, excessive screen time has become a grave concern. This has pushed researchers and practitioners to focus on digital well-being. Screen time during COVID-19 has further increased as a result of public health measures enforced by governments to curb the pandemic. A lack of comprehensive empirical overviews on screen time in the COVID-19 era in the present literature prompted us to conduct this review. The present review attempts to understand the virtual social connectedness, excessive use of digital technology, its consequences and suggest strategies to maintain healthy use of digital technology. Though there are mixed consequences of prolonged screen time use and blurred understanding between healthy and unhealthy social connectedness over digital media, the suggestions for negative implications on (physical and) mental health warrant a strict need for inculcating healthy digital habits, especially knowing that digital technology is here to stay and grow with time.

The last two decades have seen a thriving future in the use of digital technology. It has accelerated human exposure to prolonged bright screen which is becoming a growing concern. Digital technology is essentially the use of electronic devices to store, generate or process data; it facilitates communication and virtual interactions on social media platforms using the internet. The COVID-19 pandemic has forced people to rely on digital networks as their only method of maintaining a socio-emotional connection, but it has also made it a shallow one. Digital technology is influencing how people use digital devices to maintain, or avoid social relations or how much time to spend on virtual social connectedness. Screen time refers to the amount of time spent and the diverse activities performed online using digital devices. For instance, screen time encompasses both, using digital devices for work purposes as well as for leisure and entertainment.

The COVID-19 pandemic came with restrictions, regulations and stay-at-home orders. Many individuals could not return to their homes, many stuck in foreign lands and many in solitude. As a result, the usage of digital devices has increased manifold across the globe. The addiction to the digital devices has started to run in the genes of individuals. Irrespective of age, people are pushed to rely on digital platforms. Education, shopping, working, meeting, entertaining and socializing suddenly leaped from offline to online. Here, digital technology came as a blessing in disguise, enabling individuals to remain emotionally connected despite social distancing. At the same time, prolonged screen time has caused concerns related to its impact on physical and mental health. While mindful use of digital devices is linked with well-being, excessive screen time is reported to be associated with a range of negative mental health outcomes such as psychological problems, low emotional stability, and a greater risk for depression or anxiety.

Q4. What, according to the author, is/are the major objective(s) of conducting a review on the usage of digital technology? (a) To recognize the idea of virtual social togetherness (b) To suggest ideas for discontinuing the use of digital technology (c) To comprehend the suitable limit of digital technology usage (d) Only (a) and (c) (e) Both (a) and (b)

Q5. Why has the use of digital technology become more than a matter of concern? (a) Because the future of digital technology is bright for the next generation. (b) Because it has suffocated interpersonal relations with its wide usage. (c) Because it has elevated human exposure to long durations spent in front of a screen. (d) Because it has seen a decrease in virtual interactions on social media platforms. (e) None of these

Q6. Which of the following statements with reference to screen time is/are correct? (a) It refers to the amount of time spent on digital devices while online. (b) It refers to the amount of time incurred while doing a variety of online activities carried out with the use of digital gadgets. (c) Only time spent on leisure and entertainment activities is included in it. (d) Only (a) and (c) (e) Both (a) and (b)

Q7. Why has the usage of digital devices increased manifold across the globe? (a) As a result of the regulations put in place to combat the COVID-19 pandemic. (b) Because of pandemic restrictions, many people remain trapped in foreign countries. (c) Because interaction and amusement moved from the offline to the online world. (d) Only (a) and (b) (e) All of these

Q8. Why has prolonged screen time caused concerns on physical and mental health? (a) It has resulted in a slew of psychological issues. (b) Individuals have become emotionally stable as a result of it. (c) It has increased the risk of depression and anxiety. (d) Only (a) and (c) (e) Both (a) and (b)

Q9. Which of the following statements with reference to the information provided in the given passage is/are incorrect? (a) Researchers have turned their attention to digital well-being as a result of excessive screen time on digital gadgets. (b) The advancement of digital technology has seen a promising future in the recent two decades. (c) Concerns about the impact of excessive screen usage on physical and mental health have surfaced. (d) Only (a) and (b) (e) None of these

Q10. Choose the most appropriate synonym of the word 'RUN', as highlighted in the given passage. (a) Coast (b) Slide (c) Flow (d) Swipe (e) Ruin

Q11. Choose the most appropriate antonym of the word 'BRIGHT', as highlighted in the given passage. (a) Lucid (b) Dim (c) Glare (d) Canny (e) Ablaze

Q12. Which of the following statements best illustrates the meaning of the phrase "digital technology came as a blessing in disguise", as expressed in the passage? (a) Issues have been expressed about the effects of excessive screen time on health. (b) The activity of entertaining and gathering shifted from offline to online. (c) Despite the social distance, digital technology has enabled people to stay emotionally tied. (d) Long periods of screen time have raised worries about physical and mental health. (e) All of these

Q13. Choose the most appropriate synonym of the word 'SHALLOW', as highlighted in the given passage. (a) superficial (b) frivolous (c) trivial (d) Only (a) and (b) (e) All of these

Directions (14-18): In each of the questions given below a sentence is given with three words in bold. Choose the option which gives the correct sequence of these words to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

Q14. As the staying (A) lifestyle continues to evolve; a phenomenon (B) that has been further accelerated during the pandemic, is that of 'modern (C) at home.' (a) ACB (b) BAC (c) CBA (d) BCA (e) No rearrangement required

Q15. The death of five elephants has again reduce (A) the gaps in efforts to highlighted (B) man-animal conflicts (C) in the country. (a) ACB (b) BAC (c) CAB (d) BCA (e) No rearrangement required

Q16. The leap of artificial (A) intelligence in the students (B) sector has helped education (C) and educators. (a) ACB (b) BAC (c) CAB (d) BCA (e) No rearrangement required

Q17. The additional budget for MGNREGA was among the most threatened (A) awaited, as pending payments for wages have keenly (B) to cripple implementation (C) of the scheme. (a) ACB (b) BAC (c) CAB (d) BCA (e) No rearrangement required

Q18. The cyclone will briefly gain in severe (A) and become a conventional (B) cyclonic storm, but is unlikely to make a strength (C) landfall. (a) ACB (b) BAC (c) CAB (d) BCA (e) No rearrangement required

Directions (19-23): In the following questions six sentences are given. Further, these sentences may or may not form a contextually meaningful sequence. You have to rearrange these sentences to make a contextually meaningful paragraph. The sentence (F), which has already been highlighted, would be the LAST sentence after rearrangement. Later, answer the follow-up questions.

(A) The train initially operated on horse-drawn traffic were later replaced in 1856 by steam locomotives. (B) The ability of Serbian Railways to transport goods and people efficiently made economic development possible. (C) The history of rail transport in Serbia began in the mid-19th century when most of the territory was still held by the Austro-Hungarian and Ottoman Empires. (D) Part of the line was located in Serbia passing through Bela Crkva while the rest is in Romania. (E) The first rail line on the present-day territory of Serbia was inaugurated on 20 August 1854, between Lisava-Oravica-Bazijaš. (F) It continued with modified business activity: engineering and technical consulting, consulting activities in the field of information technology and other information technology services etc.

Q19. Which of the following would be the correct order of sentences after rearrangement? (a) DEBACF (b) CDEBAF (c) ABCEDF (d) BACEDF (e) CEDABF

Q20. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) F

Q21. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) F

Q22. Which of the following would be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement? (a) A (b) B (c) E (d) D (e) F

Q23. Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) F

Directions (24-25): In the following question, sentences are given with a part in bold. The given phrase in the bold may or may not contain an error. The options following can replace the incorrect phrase. The correct phrase that is to be replaced will be your answer. If the sentences are correct then select 'No improvement required' as your answer.

Q24. The Government's new policies intended to double incomes of farmers, which has been languishing while stock markets are soaring. (a) who have been (b) that has being (c) which was been (d) which have been (e) No improvement required

Q25. Prime Minister will came Dehradun on next Monday to inaugurate and lay the foundation stone of multiple projects. (a) will visit (b) was coming (c) have gone (d) had visited (e) No improvement required

Directions (26-30): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No error', the answer is 'e'). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

Q26. The Manager (A)/, as well as (B)/ the team members, (C)/ are excited. (D) (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) No error

Q27. Diabetes affect(A)/ many people (B)/ around (C)/ the world. (D) (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) No error

Q28. Not for a moment (A)/I think I would be (B)/ offered the job, (C)/ so I was amazed when I got it. (D) (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) No error

Q29. Sheela will have (A)/ reached her (B)/ grandparents' house (C)/ by this time next week.(D) (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) No error

Q30. It had (A)/ stopped raining (B)/ when I (C)/ had left the office. (D) (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) No error

Direction (31 - 35): What will come in the place of questions (?) mark in following number series.

Q31. 8, 12, 30, 105, ?, 2598.75 (a) 472.5 (b) 470.5 (c) 476.5 (d) 471.5 (e) 468.5

Q32. 9,19,39,79,?,319 (a) 221 (b) 175 (c) 125 (d) 159 (e) 199

Q33. 580, 557, 528, 497, ?, 419 (a) 463 (b) 457 (c) 461 (d) 459 (e) 460

Q34. 81, 72, 136, 111, ?, 278 (a) 325 (b) 347 (c) 323 (d) 327 (e) 321

Q35. 14, 20, 28, 39, ?, 74 (a) 50 (b) 52 (c) 54 (d) 56 (e) 59

Direction (36 - 40): Table given below shows ratio of books to pens sold by four different shops and it also shows average number of books and pens sold by these four shops.

ShopsRatio of total books to pen sold
(books: Pens)
Average number of books
& Pens sold
A4:1100
B1:360
C2:375
D3:290

Q36. If shop D sold each book at Rs. 75 & each pen at Rs. 30, then find the total earning (in Rs.) of shop D by selling all the books and pens? (a) 10220 (b) 10240 (c) 10260 (d) 10360 (e) 10460

Q37. Total books sold by shop B is what percent less than total pens sold by shop C ? (a) 6323% (b) 3313% (c) 6023% (d) 6623% (e) 6613%

Q38. Find difference between average number of books sold by A & C and total pens sold by B? (a) 10 (b) 5 (c) 15 (d) 25 (e) 20

Q39. If shop X sold 50% more pens than shop A and total books sold by shop X is 20 less than that of by shop C, then find total pens sold by X is what percent more than total books sold by X ? (a) 20% (b) 50% (c) 30% (d) 40% (e) 10%

Q40. Find the ratio of total pens sold by shop A to total books sold by shop C? (a) 1:3 (b) 2:3 (c) 3:4 (d) 2:5 (e) 1:4

Directions (41-45): In the following questions, there are two equations in x and y. You have to solve both the equations and give answer. (a) if x>y (b) if x<y (c) if xy (d) if xy (e) if x=y or there is no relation between x and y

Q41. I. x2+3x40=0 II. y211y+30=0

Q42. I. 2x2+7x15=0 II. 3y2+5y12=0

Q43. I. 2x2+26x+84=0 II. y2+15y+56=0

Q44. I. x24x221=0 II. y2y132=0

Q45. I. x213x+42=0 II. y217y+72=0

Q46. Jaya & Shivani invested Rs. 5000 & Rs. 6000 respectively in a business. After six-month Riya join the business with capital of Rs. 3000 and Jaya left the business. If at the end of one year the difference between profit share of Jaya & Riya is Rs. 200, then find the profit share (in Rs.) of Shivani. (a) 3000 (b) 2400 (c) 4200 (d) 3600 (e) 1200

Q47. If ratio of radius to height of a cylinder in 7:6 and curved surface area of cylinder is 1056 cm2, then find the total surface area of cylinder? (a) 2218 cm2 (b) 2228 cm2 (c) 2248 cm2 (d) 2288 cm2 (e) 2268 cm2

Q48. Ram spend 20% of his monthly income on rent, 10% from the remaining income he spends on food, 30% on travel and 75 amount he gives to his mother. If the difference between amount he spends on travel & amount he gives to his mother is Rs. 11200, then find the monthly income of Ram? (a) 120000 Rs. (b) 140000 Rs. (c) 150000 Rs. (d) 180000 Rs. (e) 130000 Rs.

Q49. Speed of bike is 10% less than speed of car and bike takes two hours more than car to cover 180 km distance, while car covers 300 km . Find the speed (in km/hr ) of bike? (a) 50 (b) 45 (c) 36 (d) 54 (e) 27

Q50. The ratio of present age of Aman to that of David is 2:5 and after ten years the sum of their age will be 69 years. Find the difference between present age of Aman & David? (a) 14 years (b) 21 years (c) 17 years (d) 19 years (e) 7 years

Q51. A vessel contains total 95 liter mixture of milk & water in the ratio of 15:4 respectively. X liter mixture of mixture taken out from the vessel and 18 liters water added in the remaining mixture, then the new ratio of milk to water becomes 3:2, find the value of X ? (a) 9.5 (b) 57 (c) 27.5 (d) 19 (e) 38

Q52. The ratio of speed of a boat in downstream to upstream is 5:3 and total time taken by boat to cover 30 km distance in upstream is 5 hours. Find time taken by boat to cover 40 km in downstream. (a) 4 hours (b) 6 hours (c) 8 hours (d) 2 hours (e) 3 hours

Q53. A man invested Rs. 8000 in each schemes A & B. Scheme A offers simple interest at the rate of 9% p.a. for three years, while scheme B offers simple interest at the rate of 8% p.a. for four years. Find the total interest (in Rs.) get by man from both schemes. (a) 4700 (b) 4760 (c) 4780 (d) 4520 (e) 4720

Q54. A can do 25% of a work in 7 days, while B can do 27th  of the same work in 12 days. A and B start work together and after 12 days both replace by C, who complete the remaining work in three days. Find in how many days C can complete the same work alone? (a) 6.5 days (b) 7.5 days (c) 8.5 days (d) 10.5 days (e) 12.5 days

Q55. A shopkeeper sold a table at 20% profit and a chair at profit of 25%. If the cost price of the chair is equal to the selling price of table and shopkeeper earned an overall profit of Rs. 400, then find the sum of selling price of both the articles together? (a) 2160 Rs. (b) 1760 Rs. (c) 1960 Rs. (d) 2260 Rs. (e) 2460 Rs.

Directions (56-60): Study the charts given below carefully and answer the following questions. Pie chart shows the percentage distribution of total students (Science +Commerce) in 12th  class of five different Zones and table shows the number of students in same class in science of same zones.

Q56. Number of students of commerce stream in Northern Zone are what percent more or less than number of total students in Southern Zone. (a) 20% (b) 0% (c) 5% (d) 10% (e) 12.5%

Q57. Number of Commerce students in Western zone are how much more than Science students in Northern zone, Eastern zone and Southern zone together. (a) 660 (b) 770 (c) 630 (d) 730 (e) 690

Q58. If monthly library fee per student in Central zone for commerce students is Rs. 60 which is Rs. 20 less than that for science students, then find total monthly fee of library of Central zone. (a) Rs. 60000 (b) Rs. 45000 (c) Rs. 42000 (d) Rs. 54000 (e) Rs. 63000

Q59. If Western zone also have Arts students and ratio of sum of students of science and commerce in western zone and Arts students in western zone is 5-7, then find Arts students in western zone are how much more than commerce students in Southern zone. (a) 1510 (b) 1430 (c) 1570 (d) 1620 (e) 1690

Q60. Find ratio of science students in Western Zone to Commerce students in eastern zone. (a) 7:1 (b) 22:9 (c) 21:8 (d) 17:5 (e) 25:3

Directions (61-65): Read the given data carefully and answer the following questions. There are 1080 (Fabric + paper) bag sold by shop A, B and C. (i) Shop A sold (paper + fabric) bag 25% more than shop B. Equal number of paper and fabric bag sold by shop B. (ii) The number of paper bag sold by shop B is double the fabric bag sold by A. (iii) The number of paper bag sold by shop C is 50% of fabric bag sold by shop A. (iv) The number of fabric bag sold by shop C is 25% of that by shop B.

Q61. Find the ratio between paper bag sold by B and fabric bag sold by C ? (a) 4:1 (b) 3:2 (c) 5:2 (d) 5:4 (e) 5:1

Q62. Fabric bag sold by shop A is what percentage more than paper bag sold by shop C? (a) 50% (b) 25% (c) 200% (d) 100% (e) 150%

Q63. What is the difference between average number of paper bag sold by all the shops and fabric bag sold by all the shops? (a) 110 (b) 108 (c) 106 (d) 103 (e) 115

Q64. Fabric bags sold by shop A and C together is how much more or less than paper bag sold by shop B and C together? (a) 90 (b) 102 (c) 116 (d) 108 (e) 124

Q65. Each paper bag and each fabric bag of shop A sold at Rs. 10 and Rs. 15 respectively. Find total revenue from selling paper bag and fabric bag of shop A? (a) Rs. 4750 (b) Rs. 5280 (c) Rs. 5940 (d) Rs. 5480 (e) Rs. 6220

Direction (66-70): Study the following information and answer the questions given below: Fourteen persons viz. A, B, C, D, P, Q, R, S, K, L, M, N, Y and Z sit in two parallel rows (but not necessarily in the same order) in such a way that seven persons sit in each row. A, B, P, Q, K, L and Y sit in row 1 and face north while C, D, R, S, M, N and Z sit in row 2 and face south. The persons in row 1 sit exactly opposite to the persons sit in row 2 .

Y sits diagonally opposite to Z . One person sits between Z and R . P faces R and sits immediate right of A . The number of persons sit between Y and A is same as the number of persons sit to the right of M. B sits second to the right of the one who faces R. Three persons sit between B and Q. C sits diagonally opposite to Q. C and D are immediate neighbours. N faces K .

Q66. Who among the following faces S ? (a) P (b) L (c) A (d) B (e) None of these

Q67. Who among the following sits third to the left of L? (a) Q (b) A (c) P (d) K (e) Y

Q68. What is the position of M with respect to D ? (a) Immediate right (b) Immediate left (c) Third to the left (d) Second to the left (e) Second to the right

Q69. Who among the following sits fourth to the right of the one who faces Z? (a) Y (b) P (c) K (d) L (e) B

Q70. Four among the following five are alike in a certain way and related to a group, who among the following does not belong to the group? (a) Z (b) C (c) Q (d) R (e) Y

Q71. In the given number ' 85274369 ', if all the odd digits are decreased by 1 and all the even digits are decreased by 2 , then what would be the sum of the digits which are not repeated in the new number formed after rearrangement? (a) 10 (b) 14 (c) 2 (d) 8 (e) None of these

Directions (72-74): In each of the questions below are given some statements followed by some Conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even, if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. (a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows. (c) If either conclusion I or II follows. (d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. (e) If both conclusions I and II follow.

Q72. Statements: Some key is chain. Some chain is plant. All plant is lock. Conclusion: I: No key is lock is a possibility. II: All lock is plant.

Q73. Statements: Only a few story is real. No real is drama. No drama is news. Conclusion: I: Some story is not real. II: Some news can be real.

Q74. Statements: Only pen is city. Some pen is black. Only a few office is black. Conclusion: I: Some black is not pen. II: All office is pen.

Direction (75-78): Study the following information and answer the questions given below:

Nine persons i.e., H, I, J, K, L, M, B, P and T visit three different cities viz. Mumbai, Pune and Bangalore but not necessarily in the same order. At least two persons but not more than four persons visit the same city. H visits with T. T does not visit Pune. K visits Mumbai. B visits neither Pune nor with K. J visits only with P. More than three persons visit Mumbai. L and I visit together. M does not visit with I.

Q75. Who among the following visits Pune? (a) L (b) P (c) J (d) M (e) Both (b) and (c)

Q76. Who among the following visits with K? (a) H (b) T (c) L (d) Both (a) and (b) (e) None of these

Q77. Four among the following five are same in a certain manner and related to a group, who among the following does not belong the group? (a) K (b) B (c) M (d) T (e) H

Q78. Which among the following pair is incorrect as per the data given? (a) I-L (b) P-J (c) L-M (d) T-K (e) HM

Direction (79-81): Study the given information and answer the following questions:

A certain number of persons sit in a linear row and all face north. Four persons sit between A and B. G sits second to the right of B. One person sits between G and K . The number of persons sit between B and K is same as the number of persons sit to the right of K. V sits fifth to the left of G. P sits third from one of the extreme ends. P sits just left of V. P sits to the left of A.

Q79. Find the total number of persons sit in the row? (a) 14 (b) 13 (c) 15 (d) 16 (e) Can't be determined

Q80. If P sits exactly between V and R, then how many persons sit between R and G ? (a) Three (b) Four (c) Seven (d) Six (e) None of these

Q81. What is the position of A with respect to W, if only four persons sits to the right of W ? (a) Immediate right (b) Third to the left (c) Fourth to the right (d) Immediate left (e) Second to the right

Direction (82-85): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer: (a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows. (c) If either conclusion I or II follows. (d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. (e) If both conclusions I and II follow.

Q82. Statements: W>QP<NA;N>R=X Conclusions: I. A>X II. Q>N

Q83. Statements: VBM=SFG=H Conclusions: I. M>G II. M=H

Q84. Statements: LCF>KD>M Conclusions: I. L < F II. C > D

Q85. Statements: N>VLOWA>D Conclusions: I. N>O II. A>O

Direction (86-90): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:

Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U live in a three-storey building such that ground floor is numbered as 1, above it is floor 2 then topmost floor is numbered as 3 . Each of the floor has 2 flats in it as flat-A and flat-B. FlatA of floor-2 is immediately above flat-A of floor-1 and immediately below flat-A of floor-3 and so on. In the same way flat-B of floor-2 is immediately above flat-B of floor-1 and immediately below flat-B of floor-3 and so on. Flat-A is in west of flat-B. They like different country.

R lives in the east of the one who likes Norway. One person lives between U and R but not live in the same flat number. The one who likes Russia live in the south-west of Q, who live just above T's flat. The one who likes Latvia does not live-in flat B. P lives just above S's flat but not like Norway. The one who likes Kosovo lives above the one who likes Greece and live below the one who likes Serbia.

Q86. Who among the following lives just below P's flat? (a) The one who likes Greece (b) U (c) The one who likes Norway (d) R (e) None of these

Q87. Which of the following statement is true? I. U lives on the 3rd  floor II. T does not like Kosovo III. R lives in the odd number floor. (a) Both I and III (b) Only I (c) Both II and III (d) Only II (e) Only III

Q88. Who lives in Flat B of 2nd  floor? (a) P (b) S (c) Q (d) T (e) R

Q89. Who lives in the west of the one who likes Kosovo? (a) P (b) The one who likes Russia (c) Q (d) The one who likes Norway (e) Both (a) and (b)

Q90. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Find the one who does not belong to that group? (a) U-Serbia (b) P-Russia (c) T-Greece (d) S-Kosovo (e) Q-Latvia

Q91. In the given word "LAVISHLY" if all the consonants replaced with its previous letter and all the vowels replaced with its next letter after that remove all the repeated letter and arranged them in alphabetical order then, which of the following letters is 3rd  from the left end? (a) J (b) R (c) U (d) G (e) B

Directions (92-94): Study the following information and answer the given questions

Point K is 12 m to the West of point G. Point M is 4 m to the North of Point K. Point J is 10 m to the South of Point L. Point F is 6 m to the West of point J. Point G lies exactly between Point L and Point J. Point F is 5 m north of point 0 . Point Q is 18 m west of point 0 .

Q92. In which direction is Point J with respect to Point M? (a) North (b) Northwest (c) South (d) Southeast (e) None of these

Q93. What is the shortest distance between Point K and Point L? (a) 10 m (b) 12 m (c) 13 m (d) 17 m (e) None of these

Q94. If Point N is 12 m to the East of Point Q , then what is the shortest distance between Point K and Point N? (a) 12 m (b) 10 m (c) 9 m (d) 8 m (e) 16 m

Directions (95-99): Study the following information and answer the given questions.

5 persons like different color one after another. Only two persons after the one who likes red. One person between D and the one who likes red. There are as many persons after D as same as before the one who likes white. The one who likes Purple is before than one who likes White and after the one who likes Yellow but not just after. O is before L and after M , who does not like Green. K is between M and 0.

Q95. How many persons after M? (a) Three (b) One (c) None (d) Two (e) Four

Q96. Who among the following like Purple? (a) L (b) K (c) 0 (d) M (e) None of these

Q97. The number of persons between O and L is same as the number of persons between and ? (a) M-O (b) D-K (c) K-L (d) M-K (e) O-D

Q98. How many persons between M and the one who likes white? (a) None (b) Two (c) Three (d) Either (b) or (c) (e) None of these

Q99. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Find the one who does not belong to that group? (a) L-Purple (b) M-Yellow (c) O-Purple (d) K-Red (e) D-Green

Q100. In the word 'OBSEQUIOUS', how many pairs of the letters have the same number of letters between them in both forward and backward direction in the word as in alphabetical series? (a) More than four (b) One (c) None (d) Three (e) Two


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